Related provisions for REC 6A.2.3

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LR 19.2.2RRP
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FSA; and(b) be carrying
REC 5.1.1GRP
A body corporate or an unincorporated association may apply to the FSA for recognition as a UK recognised body under sections 287 (Application by an investment exchange) or 288 (Application by a clearing house) of the Act.
DEPP 6.5.3GRP
Part III (Penalties and fees) of Schedule 1 to the Act specifically provides that the FSA may not, in determining its policy with respect to the amount of penalties, take account of expenses which it incurs, or expects to incur, in discharging its functions.
PERG 4.8.6GRP
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
CASS 5.6.5RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm; or(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 48(1)(b)of the Act; or(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FSA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records all valid claims arising
COLL 8.3.4RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.3.2 R.

1

Document status

A statement that this document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date which shall be the date of the document.

2

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is either an ICVC or an AUT;

(3)

that the scheme is a qualified investor scheme;

(4)

where relevant, that the unitholders in an ICVC are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(5)

where relevant, the address of the ICVC's head office and the address in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(6)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FSA and, if the duration of the authorised fund is not unlimited, when it will or may terminate;

(7)

the base currency for the authorised fund;

(8)

where relevant, the maximum and minimum sizes of the ICVC's capital; and

(9)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund may be wound up under the rules in COLL and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up.

3

Investment objectives and policy

(1)

Sufficient information to enable a unitholder to ascertain:

(a)

the investment objectives of the authorised fund;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including:

(i)

the general nature of the portfolio and any intended specialisation;

(ii)

the policy for the spreading of risk in the scheme property; and

(iii)

the policy in relation to the exercise of borrowing powers;

(c)

a description of any restrictions in the assets in which investment may be made; and

(d)

the extent (if any) to which that investment policy does not envisage remaining fully invested at all times.

(2)

For investment in immovables :

(a)

the countries or territories of immovables in which the authorised fund may invest;

(b)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of immovables forming part of the scheme property; and

(c)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to the granting of options over immovables in the scheme property and the purchase of options on immovables.

(3)

If intended, whether the scheme property may consist of units in collective investment schemes ("second schemes") which are managed by or operated by the authorised fund manager or by one of its associates and a statement as:

(a)

to the basis of the maximum amount of the charges in respect of transactions in a second scheme; and

(b)

the extent to which any such charges will be reimbursed to the scheme.

(4)

If intended, whether the scheme may enter into stock lending transactions and, if so, what procedures will operate and what collateral will be required.

4

Distributions and accounting dates

Relevant details of accounting and distribution dates and a description of the procedures:

(1)

for determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid); and

(2)

relating to unclaimed distributions.

5

The characteristics of units in the authorised fund

Information as to:

(1)

the names of the classes of units in issue or available for issue and the rights attached to them in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(2)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these are; and

(3)

the circumstances where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required.

6

The authorised fund manager

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the date of its incorporation and if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease;

(4)

if it is a subsidiary, the name of its ultimate holding company and the country or territory in which that holding company is incorporated;

(5)

the address of its registered office, its head office, and, if different, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(6)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up;

(7)

for an ICVC, a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the authorised fund manager which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; and

(8)

for an AUT, the names of the directors of the manager.

7

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

Other than for the ACD:

(1)

the names and positions in the ICVC of the directors; and

(2)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of the directors.

8

The depositary

The following particulars of the depositary:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the address of its registered office and the address of its head office if that is different from the address of its registered office; and

(4)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom.

9

The investment adviser

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund, its name and whether or not it is authorised by the FSA.

10

The auditor

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

11

The register of Unitholders

Details of the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders is kept and can be inspected by unitholders.

12

Payments out of the scheme property

The payments that may be made out of the scheme property to any person whether by way of remuneration for services, or reimbursement of expense and for each category of remuneration or expense, the following should be specified:

(1)

the current rates or amounts of such remuneration;

(2)

how the remuneration will be calculated and accrue and when it will be paid;

(3)

if notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager's intention to:

(a)

introduce a new category of remuneration for its services; or

(b)

increase the basis of any current charge; or

(c)

change the basis of the treatment of a payment from the capital property set out in COLL 8.5.13 R (2) (Payments);

particulars of that introduction or increase and when it will take place;

(4)

the types of any other charges and expenses that may be taken out of the scheme property; and

(5)

if, in accordance with COLL 8.5.13 R (2), all or part of the remuneration or expense are to be treated as a capital charge:

(a)

that fact; and

(b)

the basis of the charge which may be so treated

13

Dealing

Details of:

(1)

the dealing days and times in the dealing day on which the authorised fund manager will receive requests for the sale and redemption of units;

(2)

the procedures for effecting:

(a)

the issue and cancellation of units;

(b)

the sale and redemption of units; and

(c)

the settlement of transactions;

(3)

the steps required to be taken by a unitholder in redeeming units before he can receive the proceeds including any relevant notice periods and the circumstances and periods where a deferral of payment as provided in COLL 8.5.11 R (3) (Sale and redemption) may be applied;

(4)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(5)

the days and times in the day on which recalculation of the price will commence;

(6)

details of the minimum number or value of each type of unit in the authorised fund which:

(a)

any one person may hold; and

(b)

may be the subject of any one transaction of sale or redemption;

(7)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for, a redemption of units in specie;

(8)

the circumstances in which the further issue of units in any particular class may be limited and the procedures relating to this

(9)

the circumstances in which direct issue or cancellation of units by the ICVC or the trustee (as appropriate) may occur and the relevant procedures for such issues and cancellations

14

Valuation of scheme property

Details as to:

(1)

how frequently and at what times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued to determine the price at which units in the scheme may be purchased from or redeemed by the authorised fund manager and a description of any circumstance where the scheme property may be specially valued;

(2)

in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued, the basis on which it will be valued; and

(3)

how the price of units of each class will be determined, including whether a forward price or historic price basis is to be applied.

15

Sale and redemption charges

If the authorised fund manager makes any charges on sale or redemption of units, details of the charging structure and how notice will be provided to unitholders of any increase.

16

General information

Details as to:

(1)

when annual and half- yearly reports will be published; and

(2)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained.

17

Information on the umbrella

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(1)

that a unitholder may exchange units in one sub-fund for units in another sub-fund and that such an exchange is treated as a redemption and sale;

(2)

what charges may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in other sub-funds;

(3)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(4)

in respect of each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the umbrella; and

(5)

for an ICVC, that the sub-funds are not "ring fenced" and in the event of an umbrella being unable to meet liabilities attributable to any particular sub-fund out of the assets attributable to that sub-fund, the remaining liabilities may have to be met out of the assets attributable to other sub-funds.

18

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(1)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(2)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

318A

Investment in property through an intermediate holding vehicle3

If investment in an immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles is to enable the holding of immovables by the scheme.3

19

Additional information

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by the making of reasonable enquiries which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating.

PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).

SUP 4.2.1GRP
Section 340 of the Act gives the FSA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the FSA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification to the FSA of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the FSA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The FSA's rule-making powers under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
SYSC 10.2.3GRP
SYSC 10.2.2 R is made under section 147 of the Act (Control of information rules). It has the following effect:(1) acting in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2 R (1) provides a defence against proceedings brought under section 397(2) or (3) of the Act (Misleading statements and practices) - see sections 397(4) and (5)(c);(2) behaviour in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2 R (1) does not amount to market abuse (see SYSC 10.2.2 R (4)); and(3) acting in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2 R (1) provides
MCOB 9.5.4RRP
The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R(1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 9.4, with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, for a lifetime mortgage3 the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate) at the date the illustration
COLL 4.3.2GRP
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee) require the prior approval of the FSA for certain proposed changes to an authorised fund, including
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A UK insurance intermediary3

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21