Related provisions for BIPRU 14.1.3
Table of application, notification and vetting fees
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4 |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments): (i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or (ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 . 112 |
If the firm is applying to the FSA:2 (1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2 (2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2 212 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2 2 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission |
(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 11 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document ; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion. |
50,000 |
On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3 33 |
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism. |
20,000 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.
Chapter: |
Applicable to: |
About: |
Authorisation and regulated activities |
|
|
Issuing e-money |
a person who needs to know
|
|
Regulated activities connected with mortgages |
any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages |
Insurance mediation activities |
any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance |
Identification of contracts of insurance |
any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance |
the general principles and range of specific factors that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance |
Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification |
any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service |
|
Financial promotion and related activities |
any person who needs to know
|
|
Meaning of open-ended investment company |
any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme. |
the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company |
Activities related to pension schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1 |
|
Property investment clubs and land investment schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
|
Running or advising on personal pension schemes |
any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities |
the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant |
Guidance on the scope of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive and the recast Capital Adequacy Directive 5 |
Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the recast CADas implemented in the UK apply to him5 |
|
Home reversion and home finance activities |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans or home purchase plans will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
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