Related provisions for MCOB 9.4.52

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COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in money market instrumentsshould value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that the scheme is a qualifying money market fund.

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

GENPRU 1.3.30RRP
A firm must establish and maintain procedures for considering valuation adjustments or reserves. These procedures must be compliant with the requirements set out in GENPRU 1.3.33 R.
SUP 16.11.11RRP
(1) A firm may appoint another person to provide the data report on the firm's behalf if the firm has informed the FSA of that appointment in writing.(2) Where (1) applies, the firm must ensure that the data report complies with the requirements of SUP 16.11 and identifies the originator of the transaction.
REC 6.7.6GRP
Guidance on the period covered by an overseas recognised body's report submitted in compliance with section 295(1) of the Act is given in REC 6.6.3.
LR 5.1.2GRP
Examples of when the FSA may suspend the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FSA that:(1) the issuer has failed to meet its continuing obligations for listing; or(2) the issuer has failed to publish financial information in accordance with the listing rules; or(3) the issuer is unable to assess accurately its financial position and inform the market accordingly; or(4) there is insufficient information in the market about
SUP 16.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the FSA on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.(2) Where such requirements already apply to
LR 17.3.9RRP
An issuer that is not already required to comply with DTR 2 must comply with DTR 2 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure rules and transparency rules.1
FEES 6.5.14RRP
If the information in FEES 6.5.13 R has been provided to the FSA under other rule obligations, a participant firm will be deemed to have complied with FEES 6.5.13 R.
LR 9.3.9RRP
Where a listedcompany has taken a power in its constitution to impose sanctions on a shareholder who is in default in complying with a notice served under section 7932 of the Companies Act 2006 (Notice by company requiring information about interests in its shares)2:22(1) sanctions may not take effect earlier than 14 days after service of the notice;(2) for a shareholding of less than 0.25% of the shares of a particular class (calculated exclusive of treasury shares), the only
DTR 6.1.8RRP
To use electronic means to convey information to holders, an issuer must comply with the following:(1) a decision to use electronic means to convey information to shareholders or debt securities holders must be taken in a general meeting;(2) the use of electronic means must not depend upon the location of the seat or residence of:(a) the shareholder; or(b) persons referred to in rows (a) to (h) of the table set out in DTR 5.2.1 R; or(c) the debt security holder; or(d) a proxy
DEPP 6.6.1GRP
(1) The FSA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FSA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FSA's understanding of that firm's business.(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FSA's policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FSA's
SUP 11.4.9GRP
The obligation in SUP 11.4.2 R andSUP 11.4.2AR (1) and R (2) applies whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.1
REC 2.17.2UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Part II

2Paragraph 10 (Default rules in respect of market contracts)

(1)

The [UK RIE] must havedefault ruleswhich, in the event of amemberof the [UK RIE] being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contracts, enable action to be taken in respect of unsettledmarket contractsto which he is party.

(2)

The [default rules] may authorise the taking of the same or similar action in relation to amemberwho appears to be likely to become unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contracts.

(3)

The [default rules] must enable action to be taken in respect of all unsettledmarket contracts, other than those entered into for the purposes of or in connection with the provision of clearing services for the [UK RIE].

Paragraph 11 (Content of rules)

(1)

This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(a) of the Companies Act [1989].

(2)

The [default rules] must provide -

(a)

for all rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettledmarket contractsto which the defaulter is party as principal to be discharged and for there to be paid by one party to the other such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the [default rules];

(b)

for the sums so payable in respect of different contracts between the same parties to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum; and

(c)

for the certification by or on behalf of the [UK RIE] of the net sum payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.

(3)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettledmarket contractsdoes not include rights and liabilities -

(a)

in respect of margin; or

(b)

arising out of a failure to perform amarket contract.

(4)

The [default rules] may make the same or similar provision, in relation to [designated non-members] designated in accordance with the procedures mentioned in sub-paragraph (5), as in relation tomembersof the [UK RIE].

(5)

If such provision is made as is mentioned in sub-paragraph (4), the [UK RIE] must have adequate procedures -

(a)

for designating thepersons, or descriptions of person, in respect of whom action may be taken;

(b)

for keeping under review the question whichpersonsor descriptions of person should be or remain so designated; and

(c)

for withdrawing such designation.

(6)

The procedures must be designed to secure that -

(a)

apersonis not, or does not remain, designated if failure by him to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contractswould be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market; and

(b)

a description of persons is not, or does not remain, designated if failure by apersonof that description to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contractswould be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market.

(7)

The [UK RIE] must have adequate arrangements -

(a)

for bringing a designation or withdrawal of designation to the attention of thepersonor description of persons concerned; and

(b)

where a description ofpersonsis designated, or the designation of a description of persons is withdrawn, for ascertaining whichpersonsfall within that description.

Paragraph 12 (Content of rules)

(1)

This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(b) of the Companies Act [1989].

(2)

The [default rules] must provide -

(a)

for all rights and liabilities of the defaulter under or in respect of unsettledmarket contractsto be discharged and for there to be paid by or to the defaulter such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the [default rules];

(b)

for the sums so payable by or to the defaulter in respect of different contracts to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum;

(c)

for that sum -

(i)

if payable by the defaulter to the [UK RIE], to be set off against any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property) so as to produce a further net sum;

(ii)

if payable by the [UK RIE] to the defaulter, to be aggregated with any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property); and

(d)

for the certification by or on behalf of the [UK RIE] of the sum finally payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.

(3)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettledmarket contractincludes (without prejudice to the generality of that provision) rights and liabilities arising in consequence of action taken under provisions of the [default rules] authorising -

(a)

the effecting by the [UK RIE] of corresponding contracts in relation to unsettledmarket contractsto which the defaulter is party;

(b)

the transfer of the defaulter's position under an unsettledmarket contractto anothermemberof the [UK RIE];

(c)

the exercise by theUK RIEof anyoptiongranted by an unsettledmarket contract.

(4)

A "corresponding contract" means a contract on the same terms (except as to price or premium) as themarket contractbut under which thepersonwho is the buyer under themarket contractagrees to sell and thepersonwho is the seller under themarket contractagrees to buy.

(5)

Sub-paragraph (4) applies with any necessary modifications in relation to amarket contractwhich is not an agreement to sell.

(6)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettledmarket contractdoes not include, where he acts as agent, rights or liabilities of his arising out of the relationship of principal and agent.

Paragraph 13 (Notification to other parties affected)

The [UK RIE] must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that -

(a)

in the case of unsettledmarket contractswith a defaulter acting as principal, parties to the contract are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of any decision taken under the [default rules] in relation to contracts to which they are a party; and

(b)

in the case of unsettledmarket contractswith a defaulter acting as agent, parties to the contract and the defaulter's principals are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of the identity of the other parties to the contract.

Paragraph 14 (Cooperation with other authorities)

The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the Secretary of State, anyrelevant office-holderand any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of amemberof the [UK RIE] or any [designated non-member].

Paragraph 15 (Margin)

(1)

Where the [UK RIE] provides clearing services, the [default rules] of the [UK RIE] must provide that in the event of a default, margin provided by the defaulter for his own account is not to be applied to meet a shortfall on aclientaccount.

(2)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the requirements of anyrulesrelating to clients' money made by the [FSA] under sections 138 and 139 of theAct.

REC 2.7.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.

(2)

In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -

(a)

the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];

(b)

rules relating to transactions on the market;

(c)

its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE];

(d)

conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and

(e)

the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE].

(3)

Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only -

(a)

an investment firm,

(b)

a credit institution, or

(c)

a person who -

(i)

is fit and proper,

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence,

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d).

(4)

Rules under this paragraph must enable -

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or

(b)

a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive,

by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FSA] with a list of users or members of its facilities.

(6)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.

CASS 6.1.8GRP
Firms are reminded of the client's best interests rule, which requires them to act honestly, fairly and professionally in accordance with the best interests of their clients when structuring their business particularly in respect of the effect of that structure on firms' obligations under this chapter.
REC 2.10.4GRP
The law on market abuse and financial crime, including Part VI of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 and the Money Laundering Regulations, applies to UK recognised bodies. This recognition requirement (and this guidance) does not restrict, diminish or alter the obligations contained in that legislation.
REC 4.5.1GRP
UK recognised bodies which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17.
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform, settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply.

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures.

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.