Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
81 - 100 of 386 items.
Within each sub-scheme there are one or more contribution groups These relate to different types of activity carried on by participant firms within each sub-scheme Within a sub-scheme individual participant firms are allocated for funding purposes to one or more contribution groups, depending on their business activities. This meetsa requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the FSA, in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability
Section 223 of the Act (Management expenses) prevents the FSCS from recovering, through a levy, any management expenses attributable to a particular period in excess of the limit set in COMP as applicable to that period. 'Management expenses' are defined in section 223(3) to mean expenses incurred or expected to be incurred by the FSCS in connection with its functions under the Act, except:(1) expenses incurred in paying compensation; and(2) expenses incurred as a result of the
A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FSA must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R1, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:1(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
If it appears to the FSA that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 155 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)1. A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).15
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R:(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the firm which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.
1Under
section 312B of the Act, the FSA may
prohibit an EEA market operator from
making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to,
or use of, a regulated market,
or multilateral trading facility,
operated by the operator if:(1) the FSA has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator
has contravened a relevant requirement, and(2) the FSA has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition); or(2) make a direction under section 296 (FSA's powers to give directions); or(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders);is a serious one and section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) sets out a procedure (see REC 4.8.9 G) which the FSA will follow unless, in the case of a revocation of a recognition order, the recognised body
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements1may
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.
Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FSA to waive the application of certain rules in COLL and CIS to:(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT) or the ICVC and its depositary (in the case of an ICVC).2
An overseas recognised body is required to notify the FSA of certain events and give information to it on a regular basis and when certain specified events occur. Section 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) requires each overseas recognised body to provide the FSA, the Treasury and the Director General of Fair Trading with a report (at least once a year) which contains:(1) a statement as to whether any events have occurred
The period covered by a report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act starts on the day after the period covered by its last report or, if there is no such report, after the making of the recognition order recognising the overseas recognised body as such, and ends on the date specified in the report or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report.
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the FSA's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11 or a rule:(1) is
The FSA would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FSA could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FSA obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FSA will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
Where, in relation to an offer in the United Kingdom, no prospectus is required under the Act, the issuer and offeror must ensure that material information they provide to qualified investors or special categories of investors, including information disclosed in the context of meetings relating to offers, is disclosed to all qualified investors or special categories of investors to whom the offer is exclusively addressed. [Note: article 15.5 PD]
Rights under an agreement for qualifying credit are a controlled investment.Qualifying credit is defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order (Controlled activities) as credit provided pursuant to an agreement under which:(1) the lender is a person who carries on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (whether or not he is an authorised or exempt person under the Act); and(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured
Arranging qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10A of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, making arrangements:(1) for another person to enter as borrower into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(2) for a borrower under a regulated mortgage contract entered into on or after 31 October 2004 to vary the terms of that contract in such a way as to vary his obligations under that contract.This means that invitations and inducements relating
Advising on qualifying credit will be a controlled activity under paragraph 10B of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, advising a person if the advice is:(1) given to the person in his capacity as a borrower or potential borrower; and(2) advice on the merits of his doing any of the following:(a) entering into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(b) varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by him on or after 31 October 2004 in such a way
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans and home purchase plans2. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:2(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of, or with a view to, introducing the recipient to a person ('N') who is:(a) an authorised person who carries
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) .. Although a person who commits the criminal offence is subject to a maximum of two years imprisonment and an unlimited fine, it is a defence for a person to show that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
Section 87G of the Act provides that:
(1) |
Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [ FSA]. |
|
(2) |
The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FSA] for its approval. |
|
(3) |
The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FSA] and ends – |
|
(a) |
with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or |
|
(b) |
when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins. |
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(4) |
"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
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(5) |
Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to – |
|
(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and |
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(b) |
the person on whose application the prospectus was approved. |
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(6) |
A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it. |
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(7) |
Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section. |
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A supplementary prospectus must also if necessary include an amendment or supplement to the summary, and any translations of the summary, to take into account the new information. [ Note: article 16.1 PD ]Note:Section 87Q(4) of the Act sets out the rights of investors to withdraw their acceptances after a supplementary prospectus is published.
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not mean that they are not investments but simply that they are uniformly treated
There are no exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order for this specified investment category. This is because 'collective investment scheme' is defined in section 235 of the Act (Collective investment schemes) for the purposes of the Act generally. But there is a separate power to provide for exemptions from that definition and the Treasury have exercised it (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062). The result
4All contracts in this category are cash-settled instruments (as opposed to being settled by way of delivering something other than cash). Many would be unenforceable as gaming contracts were it not for section 412 of the Act (Gaming contracts). Examples of instruments that count as specified investments under this category are spread bets and interest rate swaps.
If a prospectus relating
to an issuer that has its registered
office in a country that is not an EEA State is
drawn up in accordance with the legislation of that country, the FSA may, if the United
Kingdom is the Home State in
relation to the issuer, approve
the prospectus if it is satisfied
that:(1) the prospectus has
been drawn up in accordance with international standards set by international
securities commission organisations, including the IOSCO disclosure standards;
and(2)
1This
manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved
persons and other persons,
whether or not they are regulated by the FSA. It sets out:(1) the FSA's decision-making procedure for giving statutory
notices. These are warning
notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);(2) the FSA's policy with respect to the imposition and amount of penalties
under the Act (see DEPP 6);(3) the FSA's policy with respect to the conduct of interviews by investigators
appointed
The waivers regime is overseen by a staff committee. Its responsibility is to ensure that the giving of waivers is in accordance with the requirements of the Act, of the guidance in SUP 8 and of other relevant guidance. Decisions on individual applications are made under arrangements designed to result in rapid, responsive and well-informed decision making. The arrangements include arrangements for collective decision making to set general policies, and, as necessary, determine
1If the FSA, in the course of carrying on supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate, is considering exercising its powers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), regulation 4 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations contains special provisions. The FSA must, in broad terms, do two things. Where required by those regulations, it must obtain the consent of the relevant competent authorities of the group. And, where required by those Regulations,
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying to the FSA for Part IV permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.