Related provisions for SUP 15.3.16

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.

Firm receives permission; or Firm extends permission

Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

3

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

10,00010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

LR 3.4.5RRP
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FSA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FSA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FSA.
REC 3.18.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FSA to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FSA has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements continue to be met.(2) REC 3.18.2 R focuses on the admission of persons
REC 2.6.6UKRP

In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FSA may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices:

  1. (1)

    enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;

  2. (2)

    ensure:

    1. (a)

      sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of the practices in those markets and the trading systems used; and

    2. (b)

      sufficient post-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking into account the nature and liquidity of the specified investments traded, market conditions and the scale of transactions, the need (where appropriate) to preserve anonymity for members and clients for whom they act, and the needs of different market participants for timely price information;

  3. (3)

    include procedures which enable the UK RIE to influence trading conditions or suspend trading promptly when necessary to maintain an orderly market; and

  4. (4)

    if they include arrangements to support or encourage liquidity:

    1. (a)

      are transparent;

    2. (b)

      are not likely to encourage any person to enter into transactions other than for proper trading purposes (which may include hedging, investment, speculation, price determination, arbitrage and filling orders from any client for whom he acts);

    3. (c)

      are consistent with a reliable, undistorted price-formation process; and

    4. (d)

      alleviate dealing or other identified costs associated with trading on the UK RIE's markets and do not subsidise a market position of a user of its facilities or subsidise any margin payments (or the provision of collateral) which such a user would have to make.

SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a common platform firm should notify the FSA when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]
PR 2.4.1RRP
(1) Information may be incorporated in the prospectus by reference to one or more previously or simultaneously published documents that have been approved by the competent authority of the Home State1 or filed with or notified to it in accordance with the prospectus directive1 or titles IV and V of CARD.11(2) In particular under paragraph (1), information may be incorporated by reference to information contained or referred to in an annual information update.1 [Note: article
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in money market instrumentsshould value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that the scheme is a qualifying money market fund.

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
SUP 13A.6.4GRP
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include an EEA firm with respect to which the FSA has received a consent notice or regulator's notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the
PERG 4.8.3GRP
Under article 61(3)(b) of the Regulated Activities Order, administering a regulated mortgage contract is defined as either or both of:(1) notifying the borrower of changes in interest rates or payments due under the contract, or of other matters of which the contract requires him to be notified; and(2) taking any necessary steps for the purposes of collecting or recovering payments due under the contract from the borrower;but does not include merely having or exercising a right
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance.

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform, settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply.

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures.

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
CASS 5.6.5RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm; or(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 48(1)(b)of the Act; or(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FSA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records all valid claims arising