Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1

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SUP 14.5.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm has been granted top-up permission by the FSA and wishes to vary that permission, the Act requires it to apply to the FSA for a variation of the top-up permission. 1
SUP 14.5.2GRP
Guidance on the procedures for applying for a variation of a permission granted under Part IV of the Act, including a top-up permission, is given in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).1
SUP 8.1.2GRP
A recognised body should see REC 3.3 for information on waivers of rules in REC under section 294 of the Act.
SUP 8.1.3GRP
This chapter is not relevant to the functions of the FSA acting in its capacity as the competent authority for the purposes of Part VI of the Act (Official Listing).3
REC 4.3.1GRP
Information is needed to support the FSA's risk based approach to the supervision of all regulated entities. Risk based supervision is intended to ensure that the allocation of supervisory resources and the supervisory process are compatible with the regulatory objectives and the FSA's general duties under the Act. The central element of the process of risk based supervision is a systematic assessment by the FSA (a risk assessment) of the main supervisory risks and concerns for
REC 4.3.2GRP
For each UK recognised body, the FSA will conduct a periodic risk assessment. This assessment will take into account relevant considerations including the special position of recognised bodies under the Act, the nature of the UK recognised body's members, the position of other users of its facilities and the business environment more generally.
LR 4.3.2RRP
The FSA will approve listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars if it is satisfied that the requirements of the Act and this chapter have been complied with.
LR 4.3.3GRP
The FSA will try to notify the applicant of its decision on an application for approval of listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars within the same time limits as are specified in section 87C of the Act (consideration of application for approval) for an application for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus.
COLL 9.1.1RRP
This chapter applies to operators of recognised schemes and to operators of schemes making a notification in respect of them under Chapter V of Part XVII of the Act (Recognised overseas schemes).
COLL 9.1.2GRP
This chapter enables potential operators of recognised schemes to know what information and documents the FSA wish to receive to enable it to consider whether to recognise the scheme under the Act for marketing in the United Kingdom.
LR 2.1.2GRP
Under the Act, the FSA may not grant an application for admission unless it is satisfied that:(1) the requirements of the listing rules are complied with; and(2) any special requirement (see LR 2.1.4 R) is complied with.
LR 2.1.3GRP
Under the Act, the FSA may also refuse an application for admission if it considers that:(1) admission of the securities would be detrimental to investors' interests; or(2) for securities already listed in another EEA State, the issuer has failed to comply with any obligations under that listing.
PERG 4.3.3GRP
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FSA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
PERG 4.3.4GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). The result (which is summarised in PERG 4.3.5 G) is that:(1) the 'by way of business' test in section 22 of the Act applies unchanged in relation to the activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract;(2) the 'by way of
PERG 4.3.6GRP
The 'carrying on the business' test in the Business Order is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities 'by way of business' in section 22 of the Act as it requires the regulated activities to represent the carrying on of a business in their own right. Whether or not the business test is satisfied in any particular case is ultimately a question of judgement that takes account of a number of factors (none of which is likely to be conclusive). The nature of the
COLL 6.5.7RRP
(1) The manager of an AUT is subject to removal by written notice by the trustee upon any of the following events:(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the manager;(b) an application being made to dissolve the manager or to strike it off the Register of Companies;(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the manager;(d) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of the manager's
COLL 6.5.8RRP
(1) The manager of an AUT has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the trustee upon:(a) the retiring manager appointing that person by deed as manager in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a manager; and(b) the new manager entering into such deeds as the trustee reasonably considers necessary or desirable to be entered into by that person in order to secure the due performance of
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FSA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
LR 8.7.20GRP
EG3 sets out the FSA's policy on when and how it will use its disciplinary powers, including 3 in relation to a sponsor.3
SUP 11.2.1GRP
Part XII of the Act (Control over authorised persons) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the FSA of changes in control. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before becoming a controller or increasing the level of control held (in certain circumstances). SUP 11.3 is intended to assist those persons in complying with their obligations
SUP 11.2.3GRP
As the approval of the FSA is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the FSA still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings (see COND). The FSA therefore needs
SUP 11.2.5GRP
Similarly, the FSA needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the FSA needs to be notified of any changes in a firm's close links. This requirement is contained in SUP 11.9.2
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount);

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount).

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" means –

(a)

an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R;

(c)

an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.
PERG 2.11.1GRP
Any person who concludes or is advised that he will need to make an application for Part IV permission should look at PERG 2 Annex 2 G to determine the categories of specified investment and regulated activities that are relevant to the next step and should then refer to the FSA website How do I get authorised: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1 for details of the application process.1
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the applicable provisions (if any) within
PERG 5.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts
PERG 5.2.4GRP
It is recognised pursuant to section 22 of the Act that a person will not be carrying on regulated activities in the first instance, including insurance mediation activities, unless he is carrying on these activities by way of business. Similarly, where a person's activities are excluded he cannot, by definition, be carrying on regulated activities. To this extent, the content of the questions above does not follow the scheme of the Act. For ease of navigation, however, the questions
PERG 5.2.10GRP
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with contracts of insurance will need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to contracts of insurance. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). (See in particular PERG 8.17A (Financial promotions concerning insurance mediation activities)
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FSAmay seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative in certain situations including the following:(1) If the FSA determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules, the FSAmay seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which
SUP 7.3.3GRP
The FSA may seek to impose requirements or limitations which include but are not restricted to:(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity gaps;(3) requiring a firm to submit a business plan (or for an insurer, a scheme of operations (see SUP
SUP 7.3.4GRP
The FSA will seek to give a firm reasonable notice of an intent to vary its permission and to agree with the firm an appropriate timescale. However, if the FSA considers that a delay may be prejudicial to the interest of consumers, the FSA may need to act immediately using its powers under section 45 of the Actto vary a firm's Part IV permission with immediate effect.
PERG 4.12.1GRP
Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.
PERG 4.12.2GRP
A person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).
PERG 4.12.5GRP
Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any
PERG 5.13.1GRP
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
PERG 5.13.2GRP
A person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).
PERG 5.13.6GRP
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
SUP 5.4.1GRP
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
SUP 5.4.6GRP
The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G the skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and (2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected