Related provisions for LR 10.1.5

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REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
PERG 5.14.1GRP
Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance mediation activities in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance mediation activities may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the FSA Register as carrying
PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.

annual information update

the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R.

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.

CARD

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.

CESR recommendations

the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FSA staff under executive procedures)2.

22

FSA

the Financial Services Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

Investment Services Directive

the Council Directive of 10 May 1993 on investment services in the securities field (No 93/22/EEC).

ISD

Investment Services Directive.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) :

(a)

any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R;

(c)

An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.

register

register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act.

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.

regulated market

(a)

(as defined in article 1 of the ISD) a market for the instruments listed in Section B of the Annex to the ISD which:

  • (i) appears on the list of such markets drawn up by the market's Home State as required by article 16 of the ISD;
  • (ii) functions regularly;
  • (iii) is characterised by the fact that regulations issued or approved by the competent authorities define the conditions for the operation of the market, the conditions for access to the market and, where Directive 79/279/EEC is applicable, the conditions governing admission to listing imposed in that Directive and, where that Directive is not applicable, the conditions that must be satisfied by a financial instrument before it can effectively be dealt in on the market; and
  • (iv)requires compliance with all the reporting and transparency requirements laid down by articles 20 and 21 of the ISD; and

(b)

a market notified under article 16 of the ISD, as included in point 30b of Annex IX to the Agreement of the European Economic Area, to the Standing Committee of the EFTA States as defined in that agreement.

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FSA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of the investment services directive, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company; and

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the scheme.

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the scheme.

LR 12.4.10GRP
A listed company intending to enter into a transaction that would have an effect on the company similar to that of a purchase of own equity shares should consult with the FSA to discuss the application of LR 12.4.
COLL 3.3.2GRP
(1) The instrument constituting the scheme may provide for different classes of unit to be issued in an authorised fund and, for a scheme which is an umbrella, provide that classes of units may be issued for each sub-fund.(2) In order to be satisfied that COLL 3.2.2 R (Relationship between the instrument constituting the schemeand the rules) is complied with, the FSA will take into account the principles in (a) to (c) when considering proposals for unit classes:(a) a unit class
DISP 3.3.4RRP
In DISP 3.3.1 R (5) the transaction could, for example, be a pension transaction which has been reviewed by the firm in accordance with the relevant regulatory standards. The Ombudsman may decide not to proceed with a complaint about the result of that review unless he considers that the standards or guidance published by the regulator did not address the particular circumstances of the case.
PERG 8.1.4GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act. It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to 30
BIPRU 9.12.11RRP

Table: Positions other than ones with short-term credit assessments

This table belongs to BIPRU 9.12.10 R

Credit Quality Step (CQS)

Risk weight

A

B

C

CQS 1

7%

12%

20%

CQS 2

8%

15%

25%

CQS 3

10%

18%

35%

CQS 4

12%

20%

CQS 5

20%

35%

CQS 6

35%

50%

CQS 7

60%

75%

CQS 8

100%

CQS 9

250%

CQS 10

425%

CQS 11

650%

Below CQS 11

1250%

[Note: For mapping of the credit quality step to the credit assessments of eligible ECAIs, referto: www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/international/ecais_securitisation.pdf ]

APER 1.2.3GRP
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the opinion of the FSA, do not comply with a Statement of Principle and, in the case of Statement of Principle 3, conduct which tends to show compliance within that statement. The Code of Practice for Approved Persons also sets out, in certain cases, factors which, in the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account in determining whether or not an approved person's conduct complies with
PERG 4.14.2GRP
In the FSA's view, the following exclusions are likely, in many cases, to exclude the normal activities of professional firms from amounting to regulated mortgage activities:(1) article 67 of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business), which applies in relation to the advising and arranging activities (see PERG 4.10.1 G);(2) article 66 of the Regulated Activities Order (Trustees, nominees and personal representatives)
SUP 17.7.12RRP
A firm must notify the FSA, in writing and without delay, of any failure of its own system, or that of a person reporting on its behalf, which prevents a transaction report being made within the period specified in SUP 17.6.1.
MCOB 12.1.5GRP
The FSA will expect a firm to ensure that charges made to a customer arising from the sale of a repossessed property and charges arising in relation to a saleshortfall1 are not excessive and are subject to the same considerations as apply with respect to arrears charges under this chapter.1
BIPRU 1.1.4GRP
BIPRU 1.1 implements in part Articles 3(1)(b), 5, 9, 10 and 20 of the Capital Adequacy Directive. However it amends those definitions so as to base the classification of investment firms on the ISD rather than the MiFID. will be amended so as to base that classification on the MiFID when the MiFID is applied to firms by the FSA.
MCOB 1.2.5GRP
(1) In order for a loan to fall within the definition of a regulated mortgage contract, at least 40% of the total of the land to be given as security must be used as or in connection with a dwelling. Therefore, the variation in approach provided for in MCOB 1.2.3 R(2) can only apply where the loan being used for a business purpose is secured against a property at least 40 per cent of which is used as a dwelling. It cannot apply to a loan secured on property that is used solely
COLL 3.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the scheme)

Name of scheme

1

A statement of:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund; and

(2)

whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme.

Investment powers in eligible markets

2

A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the scheme, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers).

Unitholder's liability to pay

3

A provision that a unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds.

Base currency

4

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

Valuation and pricing

5

A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme.

Duration of the scheme

6

If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect.

Object of the scheme

7

A statement:

(1)

as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and

(2)

that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property.

27A

Where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, a statement to that effect and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund.

Government and public securities: investment in one issuer

8

Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) as to the individual states or bodies in which over 35% of the value of the scheme may be invested in government and public securities.

Classes of unit

9

A statement:

(1)

specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes.

Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses

10

A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property.

Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or trustee

11

Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or trustee directly.

In specie issue and cancellation

12

Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash.

Restrictions on sale and redemption

13

Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption).

Voting at meetings

14

The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights).

Certificates

15

A statement:

(1)

authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and

(2)

authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units.

Income

16

A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income.

Income equalisation

17

Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation.

Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

18

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares

19

A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class.

ICVCs: resolution to remove a director

20

A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director.

ICVCs: unit transfers

21

A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) or for an ICVC established in Northern Ireland, paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 to the Open-Ended Investment Companies Regulations (Northern Ireland) 2004 (SR 2004/335) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1

ICVCs: Charges and expenses

22

A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVC may be taken out of the scheme property.

AUTs: governing law for a trust deed

23

A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative

24

A statement that the trust deed:

(1)

is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and

(2)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms.

AUTs: declaration of trust

25

A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(1)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(2)

the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution).

AUTs: trustee's remuneration

26

Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.

AUTs: responsibility for the register

27

A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register.

SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,10 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Note 1)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank or building society which in either case carries on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank or building society which in either case does not carry on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5B)

ELMI

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm (Note 3) which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

9

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

9(7A)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm not within (7) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

9(7B)

UCITS firm13

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

13(7C)

BIPRU investment firm or exempt CAD firm

SUP 3.1 - 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which CASS 5 (Client money and mandates) (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 = In row (2):

(a) CASS 2 (Client assets) is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguarding and administering investments in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguarding and administering investments in relation to bonded investments;

(b) CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client;

but, if CASS 2 or CASS 4 is treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of CASS 2 or CASS 4.

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general: core investment services by investment firms).

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

SUP 11.5.10GRP
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the FSA by submitting a single notification containing one set of information.