Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4
121 - 140 of 557 items.
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA;(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.
Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
(1) |
Post to the address in REC 3.2.4 R |
(2) |
Leaving the notification at the address in REC 3.2.4 R and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
(3) |
Electronic mail to an address for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
(4) |
Hand delivery to the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA |
(5) |
Fax to a fax number for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, provided that the FSA receives a copy of the notification by one of methods (1) - (4) in this table within five business days after the date of the faxed notification |
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FSA no later than the end of that period; and (2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the end of that period.
A general rule (that is a rule made section 138 of the Act (General rule-making power)) is to be interpreted as:(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 2
(1) The [UK RIE] must be a fit and properpersonto perform the [ relevant functions ] of a [ UK RIE ]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FSA] may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with anyperson.1 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to its connections with:(1) any undertaking in the same group;(2) any owner or part-owner of the UK recognised body;(3) any person who has the right to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(4) any person who is able in practice to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(5) any person in accordance with whose instructions
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other person,
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject to the conditions set
This table belongs to COLL 7.3.3 G
Summary of the main steps in winding up a solvent ICVC or terminating a sub-fund under FSA rules, assuming FSA approval. Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FSA under regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.3.8 R(4)) |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
COLL rule (unless stated otherwise) |
1 |
Commence preparation of solvency statement |
N-28 days |
7.3.5 (2) |
2 |
Send audited solvency statement to the FSA with copy to depositary |
By N + 21 days |
7.3.5 (4) and (5) |
3 |
Receive the FSA approval |
N + one month |
Regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations |
4 |
Normal business ceases; publish notices |
E |
7.3.6 |
5 |
Realise proceeds, wind up, instruct depositary accordingly |
ASAP after E |
7.3.7 |
6 |
Prepare final account or termination account & have account audited |
On completion of W/U or termination |
7.3.8 |
7 |
Send final account or termination account and auditor's report to the FSA & unitholders |
Within 2 months of FAP |
7.3.8(6) |
8 |
Request FSA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.3.7(9) |
(1) An ICVC must not be wound up except under this section or as an unregistered company under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986.(2) An ICVC must not be wound up under this section if there is a vacancy in the position of ACD. (3) An ICVC must not be wound up or a sub-fund terminated under this section: (a) unless and until effect may be given, under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations, to proposals to wind up the affairs of the ICVC or to proposals to make the alterations to
(1) Before notice is given to the FSA under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations of the proposals referred to in COLL 7.3.4 R (3), the directors must make a full enquiry into the ICVC's affairs to determine whether the ICVC will be able to meet all its liabilities. (2) The ACD must then, based on the results of this enquiry, prepare a statement either: (a) confirming that the ICVC will be able to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement; or(b)
(1) Paragraphs (2) to (9) of this rule apply to winding up an ICVC and termination of a sub-fund, paragraph (10) only applies to the winding up of an ICVC and paragraphs (11) to (15) only apply to the termination of a sub-fund of an ICVC.(2) The ACD must, as soon as practicable after winding up or termination has commenced, cause the scheme property to be realised and the liabilities of the ICVC or the sub-fund to be met out of the proceeds.(3) The ACD must instruct the depositary
(1) Once the ICVC's affairs are fully wound up or termination of the sub-fund has been completed (including distribution or provision for distribution in accordance with COLL 7.3.7 R (5), the ACD must prepare an account of the winding up or termination showing: (a) how it has been conducted; and(b) how the scheme property has been disposed of. (2) The account in (1) must be, if there is: (a) more than one director, approved by the board of directors and be signed on their behalf
(1) If: (a) during the course, or as a result, of the enquiry referred to in COLL 7.3.5 R (1) (Solvency statement), the directors become of the opinion that it will not be possible to provide the confirmation referred to in (2)(a) of that rule; or(b) after winding up or termination has commenced, the ACD becomes of the opinion that the ICVC will be unable to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement provided under (a) of COLL 7.3.5 R (2); the directors
If a firm has doubts that a prospective introducerappointed representative or other person is of sufficiently good reputation and otherwise fit and proper, the FSA will expect it to resolve those doubts before appointing the prospective introducer appointed representative. For example, if a firm is aware that a person's previous appointment as an introducer appointed representative or representative was terminated, it should take reasonable steps to find out the reasons for the
(1) 1An appointed representative must not commence an insurance mediation activity until he is included on the Register as carrying on such activities (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)). (2) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include an insurance mediation activity, the principal must notify the FSA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)). (3) As an exception, pre-notification is not required if the appointed
(1) 1The FSA has the power to decide not to include on the Register (or to remove from the Register) an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes an insurance mediation activity, if it appears to the FSA that he is not a fit and proper person to carry on those activities (article 95 of the Regulated Activities Order).(2) If the FSA proposes to use the power in (1), it must give the appointed representative a warning notice. If the FSA decides to proceed with
The FSA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer
The FSA may carry out mystery shopping:(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FSA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions; (2) together with focused visits (concentrating on
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
Article 67 may also apply to activities relating to assignments of insurance policies, as, in the FSA's view, article 2.3 of the IMD applies essentially to the creation of new contracts of insurance and not the assignment of rights under existing policies. As such, where a solicitor or licensed conveyancer arranges an assignment of a contract of insurance, the exclusion in article 67 remains of potential application. For similar reasons, trustees advising on or arranging assignments
Article 72B (see also PERG 5.3.7 G (Connected contracts of insurance)) may be of relevance to persons who supply non-motor goods or provide services related to travel in the course of carrying on a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities. In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business
In the FSA's view, the liability risks referred to in PERG 5.11.13G (5) cover risks in relation to liabilities that the policyholder might have to others (that is, third party claims). Many policies will provide this sort of cover and so fall outside the scope of the exclusion. For example, a policy that covers the cost of unauthorised calls made when a mobile telephone is stolen includes 'liability risks' and would not be a 'connected contract of insurance'. By contrast, travel
A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
The FSA will determine, following consultation, the amount to be raised from each industry block. This will be based on the budgeted costs and numbers of Financial Ombudsman Service staff required to deal with the volume of complaints which the Financial Ombudsman Service expects to receive about the firms in each industry block. Modified arrangements have been made for certain types of small firms (see FEES 5.5.3 R to FEES 5.5.5 G).
This guidance is issued under section 157 of Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. This guidance represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Action for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation
If a decision maker is asked to decide whether to give a decision notice or second supervisory notice, it will:(1) review the material before it;(2) consider any representations made (whether written, oral or both) and any comments by FSA staff or others in respect of those representations;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
If the FSA receives no response or representations within the period specified in a warning notice, the decision maker may regard as undisputed the allegations or matters in that notice and a decision notice will be given accordingly. A person who has received a decision notice and has not previously made any response or representations to the FSA, may nevertheless refer the FSA's decision to the Tribunal.
If the FSA receives no response or representations within the period specified in a first supervisory notice, the FSA will not give a second supervisory notice. The outcome depends on when the relevant action took or takes effect (as stated in the notice). If the action:(1) took effect immediately, or on a specified date which has already passed, it continues to have effect (subject to any decision on a referral to the Tribunal); or(2) was to take effect on a specified date which
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FSA takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FSA may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FSA can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:(1) FSA staff will recommend
An overseascompany must forward to the FSA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
An overseascompany must ensure that the FSA is provided with up to date contact details of appropriate persons nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FSA in relation to the overseascompany's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure rules and transparency rules, as applicable.
5A firm must:(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FSA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities of the
A firm should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of an unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness.
(1) This
chapter applies to every firm which
is:(a) a securities
and futures firm; or(b) a personal
investment firm; or(c) an investment
firm (including a credit
institution which is an investment
firm) not within (a) or (b) excluding a firm to whom the ISD does not apply under Article 2(2) of
the ISD.(2) This
chapter does not apply to:(a) an incoming
EEA firm in relation to its passported activities; or(b) an oil
market participant in relation to its oil market activities.
In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FSA may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices:
- (1)
enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;
- (2)
ensure:
- (a)
sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of the practices in those markets and the trading systems used; and
- (b)
sufficient post-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking into account the nature and liquidity of the specified investments traded, market conditions and the scale of transactions, the need (where appropriate) to preserve anonymity for members and clients for whom they act, and the needs of different market participants for timely price information;
- (a)
- (3)
include procedures which enable the UK RIE to influence trading conditions or suspend trading promptly when necessary to maintain an orderly market; and
- (4)
if they include arrangements to support or encourage liquidity:
- (a)
are transparent;
- (b)
are not likely to encourage any person to enter into transactions other than for proper trading purposes (which may include hedging, investment, speculation, price determination, arbitrage and filling orders from any client for whom he acts);
- (c)
are consistent with a reliable, undistorted price-formation process; and
- (d)
alleviate dealing or other identified costs associated with trading on the UK RIE's markets and do not subsidise a market position of a user of its facilities or subsidise any margin payments (or the provision of collateral) which such a user would have to make.
- (a)
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FSA's register at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FSA's register) it is reasonable, in the FSA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FSA would normally expect introducers
In the FSA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable in connection with transfer of property to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a borrower. For example, article 28B allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
In the FSA's view, the provision of details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(ii) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient
In the FSA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FSA would
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility
Under the investment condition, the reasonable investor is looking to satisfy two criteria. Both of these are fundamental to his decision to invest. But the thresholds referred to in PERG 9.6.1 G (1) and PERG 9.6.1 G (2) are different. In the FSA's view, a person expects something where he regards it as likely to happen or anticipates that events will turn out in a particular way. A person is satisfied of something where he has made up his mind or is persuaded that it is the case.
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FSA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
In the FSA's view, and within limits, the investment condition allows for the possibility that a body corporate that is an open-ended investment company may issue shares or securities with different characteristics. Some shares or securities may clearly satisfy the condition whereas others may not. The FSA considers that a reasonable investor contemplating investment in such a body corporate may still take the view, looking at the body corporate overall, that the investment condition
The FSA considers that the reference in PERG 9.6.5 G (3) to corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State will include provisions that derive from the maintenance of capital requirements of the Second Council Directive on co-ordination of safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies (77/91/EEC).
The FSA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
(1) 1The FSA may suspend, with effect from such time as it may determine, the listing of any securities if the smooth operation of the market is, or may be, temporarily jeopardised or it is necessary to protect investors. [Note: article 18(1) CARD](2) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended must continue to comply with all listing rules applicable to it.(3) If the FSA suspends the listing of any securities, it may impose such conditions on the procedure
Examples of when the FSA may suspend the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FSA that:(1) the issuer has failed to meet its continuing obligations for listing; or(2) the issuer has failed to publish financial information in accordance with the listing rules; or(3) the issuer is unable to assess accurately its financial position and inform the market accordingly; or(4) there is insufficient information in the market about
Standing data is used by the FSA:(1) to ensure that a firm is presented with the correct regulatory return when it seeks to report electronically;(2) in order to communicate with a firm;(3) as the basis for some sections of the FSA Register; and (4) in order to carry out thematic analysis across sectors and groups of firms.
(1) Within 30 business days of its accounting reference date, a firm must check the accuracy of its standing data through the relevant section of the FSA website.(2) (3) If any standing data is incorrect, the firm must give the corrected standing data to the FSA, using the appropriate form submitted in accordance with instructions on that form.2
The standing data is made available to the firm when the firm logs into the appropriate section of the FSA website. The firm should check the standing data and send any corrections to the FSA. The FSA's preferred method of receiving corrections to standing data is by the online forms available at the FSA's website.2