Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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SUP 13.11.1RRP
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7)1.11(2) The record in (1) must be kept for three years from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was superseded by a more up-to-date record; or(b) the UK firm ceased to
SUP 13.11.2GRP
The record in SUP 13.11.1 R need not relate to the level of business carried on. A UK firm may comply with SUP 13.11.1 R by, for example, keeping copies of all notices of intention and change to details notices1.1
SUP 13.11.3GRP
A UK firm should monitor the business carried on under an EEA right to ensure that any changes to details are notified as required by SUP 13.6 (Changes to branches) and 1SUP 13.7 (Changes to cross border services).1
REC 3.1.1RRP
(1) The notification rules in this chapter, which are made under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements), apply to all UK recognised bodies.(2) The rules relating to the form and method of notification in REC 3.2 also apply to overseas recognised bodies.
REC 3.1.3GRP
The notification rules in this chapter are in addition to the requirements on UK recognised bodies to give notice or information to the FSA under sub-sections 293(5), (6) and (7) of the Act.
REC 3.16.1GRP
The purpose of REC 3.16 is to ensure that the FSA receives a copy of the UK recognised body's plans and arrangements for ensuring business continuity if there are major problems with its computer systems. The FSA does not need to be notified of minor revisions to, or updating of, the documents containing a UK recognised body's business continuity plan (for example, changes to contact names or telephone numbers).
REC 3.16.2RRP
Where a UK recognised body changes any of its plans for action in the event of a failure of any of its information technology systems resulting in disruption to the operation of its facilities, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and a copy of the new plan.
REC 3.16.3RRP
Where any reserve information technology system of a UK recognised body fails in such a way that, if the main information technology system of that body were also to fail, it would be unable to operate any of its facilities during its normal hours of operation, that body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and inform the FSA:(1) what action that UK recognised body is taking to restore the operation of the reserve information technology system; and (2) when it is
SYSC 18.1.2GRP
(1) The purposes of this chapter are:(a) to remind firms of the provisions of PIDA; and(b) to encourage firms to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this chapter "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
GEN 4.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
GEN 4.1.2RRP
GEN 4.3 (Letter disclosure) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, subject to GEN 4.3.4 R (Exception: insurers).
SUP 15.5.1RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in:(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
SUP 15.5.4RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
SUP 15.5.5RRP
[deleted]11
REC 3.5.1RRP
Where any key individual of a UK recognised body:(1) is the subject of any disciplinary action because of concerns about his alleged misconduct; (2) resigns as a result of an investigation into his alleged misconduct; or(3) is dismissed for misconduct;that body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.5.2 R.
REC 3.5.2RRP
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.5.1 R:(1) the name of the key individual and his responsibilities within the UK recognised body;(2) details of the acts or alleged acts of misconduct by that key individual; and(3) details of any disciplinary action which has been or is proposed to be taken by that body in relation to that key individual.
REC 3.5.3RRP
Where a UK recognised body becomes aware that any of the following events has occurred in relation to a key individual, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event:(1) a petition for bankruptcy is presented (or similar or analogous proceedings under the law of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom are commenced) against that key individual; or(2) a bankruptcy order (or a similar or analogous order under the law of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom) is made
SUP 13.8.1RRP
(1) A notice of a change to a branch referred to in 2SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G2 and SUP 13.6.10 G (1) and a notice of a change to cross border services referred to in2SUP 13.7.3 G (1) or SUP 13.7.5 G (1) and SUP 13.7.6 G2 must be:22(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Passport Notifications Unit; and(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).(2) The notice may be delivered by:2(a) post to the address in (3); or(b) leaving
SUP 13.8.2GRP
UK firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the Insurance Directives may be required to submit the change to details notice2 in the language of the Host State as well as in English. 22
PERG 2.9.6GRP
The exclusions apply where the regulated activity is carried out in the course of a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom. However, activities are only excluded to the extent that they may reasonably be regarded as a necessary part of the other services provided in the course of the profession or business. The exclusion does not apply if separate remuneration is received in respect of any regulated
PERG 2.9.16GRP
An overseasperson is defined as a person who carries on what would be regulated activities (including any activity that would otherwise be excluded from being a regulated activity by virtue of the exclusions for overseas persons referred to in PERG 2.9.15 G) but who does not do so, or offer to do so, from a permanent place of business maintained by him in the United Kingdom. Where a person does not have a permanent place of business in the United Kingdom, he will not, in any event,
PERG 2.9.17GRP
The exclusions are available, for regulated activities other than those that relate to home finance transactions4 in the two broad cases set out below. For some of these regulated activities, the exclusions apply in each case. In others, they apply in only one.4(1) The first case is where the nature of the regulated activity requires the direct involvement of another person and that person is authorised or exempt (and acting within the scope of his exemption). For example, this
PERG 2.9.18GRP
(1) In accordance with article 3(2) of the E-Commerce Directive, all requirements on persons providing electronic commerce activities into the United Kingdom from the EEA are lifted, where these fall within the co-ordinated field and would restrict the freedom of such a firm to provide services. The coordinated field includes any requirement of a general or specific nature concerning the taking up or pursuit of electronic commerce activities. Authorisation requirements fall within
PERG 8.8.1GRP
Section 21(3) of the Act states that, in the case of a communication originating outside the United Kingdom, the restriction in section 21(1) applies only if it is capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. In this respect, it is irrelevant whether the communication has an effect provided it is capable of doing so.
PERG 8.8.2GRP
This appears to give a potentially broad jurisdictional scope to section 21. It seems clear that a communication which originates overseas will be capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom if it is an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is communicated to a person in the United Kingdom. It would seem that communications made in other circumstances may also be capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. However, the exemption for communications
PERG 8.8.3GRP
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially
SUP 13A.3.1GRP
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm qualifies for authorisation if:(1) it is seeking to establish a branch in the United Kingdom in exercise of an EEA right and satisfies the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G and SUP 13A.4.2 G); or(2) it is seeking to provide
SUP 13A.3.2GRP
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.2G (2), an EEA firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.(2) (a) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the activity of dealing in units in a collective investment scheme in the United Kingdom where:(i) the firm is an EEA UCITS management company;(ii) the firm satisfies the establishment conditions in SUP 13A.4.1 G; and(iii) the FSA notifies the EEA firm and the
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate for the FSA to give a direction
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be satisfiedin the following circumstances:(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act; or(3) the recognised
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.
GEN 2.2.5GRP
Chapter 6 of the Reader's Guide contains an explanation of the significance of the status letters R, E, G, D, UK, EU, P and C6, and includes further information on Handbook provisions, including6 evidential provisions.16
SUP 12.2.1GRP
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
SUP 13A.5.1GRP
There is guidance for UKfirms in SUP Appendix 3.6 on when a service is provided cross border. EEA firms may find this of interest although they should follow the guidance of their Home State regulators.
SUP 13A.5.2GRP
An EEA firm should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
SUP 13A.5.5GRP
An EEA firm that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification of the applicable provisions may wish to contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13A.8.1G (2)).
SYSC 12.1.1RRP
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity;(b) an ELMI;(c) an insurer;(d) a BIPRU firm;(e) a non-BIPRU firm that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group; and(f) a firm subject to the rules in IPRU(INV) Chapter 14.(2) a UCITS firm, but only if
SYSC 12.1.2RRP
Except as set out in SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies with respect to different types of group as follows:(1) SYSC 12.1.8 R and SYSC 12.1.10 R apply with respect to all groups, including FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates, other financial conglomerates and groups dealt with in SYSC 12.1.13 R to SYSC 12.1.16 R;(2) the additional requirements set out in SYSC 12.1.11 R and SYSC 12.1.12 R only apply with respect to FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates; and(3) the
SYSC 12.1.4RRP
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate;(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for which
SYSC 12.1.13RRP
If this rule applies under SYSC 12.1.14 R to a firm, the firm must:(1) comply with SYSC 12.1.8R (2) in relation to any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member, as well as in relation to its group; and(2) ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member comply with the obligations set out in the following provisions on a consolidated (or
SYSC 12.1.14RRP
SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to a firm that is:(1) an ELMI;(2) a BIPRU firm; or(3) anon-BIPRU firm that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group.
REC 2.16.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9

(1)

The [UK RIE] must have effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of itsregulatory functions.

(2)

But sub-paragraph (1) does not extend to -

(a)

complaints about the content of rules made by the [UK RIE], or

(b)

complaints about a decision against which the complainant has the right to appeal under procedures of the kind mentioned in paragraph 8(2)(b).

(3)

The arrangements must include arrangements for a complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by apersonindependent of the [UK RIE], and for him to report on the result of his investigation to the [UK RIE] and to the complainant.

(4)

The arrangements must confer on thepersonmentioned in sub-paragraph (3) the power to recommend, if he thinks appropriate, that the [UK RIE] -

(a)

makes a compensatory payment to the complainant,

(b)

remedies the matter complained of,

or takes both of those steps.

(5)

Sub-paragraph (3) is not to be taken as preventing the [UK RIE] from making arrangements for the initial investigation of a complaint to be conducted by the [UK RIE].1
REC 2.16.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to the
REC 2.16.4GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FSA may have regard to:(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply