Related provisions for PERG 7.7.5

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REC 4.4.2GRP
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FSA from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FSA is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FSA's arrangements for investigating
REC 4.4.3GRP
Where the FSA receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FSA will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
REC 4.4.4GRP
The FSA will not usually consider a complaint which has not, in the first instance, been made to the recognised body concerned, unless there is good reason for believing that it is a relevant complaint which merits early consideration by the FSA.
REC 4.4.5GRP
When it is considering a relevant complaint, the FSA will make its own enquiries as appropriate with the recognised body, the complainant and other persons. It will usually ask the recognised body and the complainant to comment upon any preliminary or draft conclusions of its review and to confirm any matters of fact at that stage.
REC 4.4.6GRP
The FSA will communicate the outcome of its review of a relevant complaint to the complainant and the recognised body, but will normally only discuss any action which it considers the recognised body should take with the recognised body itself.
PERG 9.7.2GRP
The characteristics that a reasonable investor can be expected to have will inform the use of judgment required by the 'expectation test' and the 'satisfaction test'. These tests relate to the investor's ability to realise an investment within a reasonable period and to do so on the basis of the net value of its assets. In the FSA's view, the characteristics of the reasonable investor include:(1) sound judgment based on good sense;(2) some knowledge of, and possibly experience
PERG 9.7.3GRP
The reasonable investor is a hypothetical investor. The implications of this are that the test does not relate to actual investment by a particular person at a particular time or in relation to a particular issue of any class of shares or securities. In the FSA's view, what underlies the test is what a reasonable investor would think he was getting into if he were contemplating investment in a particular body corporate. In addition, because the investor is hypothetical, the investment
PERG 9.7.5GRP
After an initial assessment, however, the FSA's view is that subsequent applications of the investment condition could produce a different result, but only if there is a change to the constitution or practice of the body corporate which is significant and sustained. For example, this may happen if there is a change in the body corporate's published intentions or regular practices. As the Economic Secretary to the Treasury said in parliamentary debate when commenting on the definition,
PERG 9.7.6GRP
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FSA's view, this requires, for example,
REC 3.6.1RRP
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
REC 3.6.4RRP
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.
REC 3.6.6RRP
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FSA notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
REC 3.6.7GRP
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FSA is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.
DEPP 6.6.1GRP
(1) The FSA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FSA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FSA's understanding of that firm's business.(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FSA's policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FSA's
DEPP 6.6.2GRP
In addition to the factors relevant to determining the appropriate level of financial penalty (see DEPP 6.5.2 G), the following considerations are relevant.(1) In general, the FSA's approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FSA as to why he should not be
DEPP 6.6.3GRP
In addition, in appropriate cases, the FSA may bring disciplinary action against the approved persons within the firm's management who are ultimately responsible for ensuring that the firm's reports are completed and returned to the FSA.
DEPP 6.6.4GRP
In applying the guidance in this section, the FSA may treat a report which is materially incomplete or inaccurate as not received until it has been submitted in a form which is materially complete and accurate. For the purposes of the guidance, the FSA may also treat a report as not received where the method by which it is submitted to the FSA does not comply with the prescribed method of submission.
DEPP 6.6.5GRP
In most late reporting cases, it will not be necessary for the FSA to appoint an investigator since the fact of the breach will be clear. It follows that the FSA will not usually send the firm concerned a preliminary findings letter for late-reporting disciplinary action.
LR 5.3.1RRP
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
LR 5.3.4GRP
A written request by an issuer to have the listing of its securities suspended should be made as soon as practicable. Suspension requests received for the opening of the market should allow sufficient time for the FSA to deal with the request before trading starts.
LR 5.3.6GRP
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FSA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
LR 5.3.7GRP
(1) If an issuer requests the FSA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FSA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
LR 19.4.3RRP
(1) An issuer'slistedsecuritised derivatives must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FSA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedsecuritised derivatives to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives
LR 19.4.7RRP
If an issue is guaranteed by an unlisted company, an issuer must submit the guarantor's accounts to the FSA.
LR 19.4.11AGRP
1An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules) and DTR 6 (Access to information).
LR 19.4.11BRRP
1For the purposes of compliance with the transparency rules, the FSA considers that an issuer of securitised derivatives should comply with DTR 4, DTR 5 and DTR 6 as if it were an issuer of debt securities as defined in the transparency rules.
LR 1.2.1RRP
(1) The FSA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of EU directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance
LR 1.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FSA to dispense with or modify a listing rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FSA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required by
LR 1.2.4GRP
If an issuer applies to the FSA to dispense with or modify a listing rule on the basis that it is in severe financial difficulty, the FSA would ordinarily expect the issuer to comply with the conditions in LR 10.8 (to the extent relevant to the particular rule for which the dispensation or modification is sought). In particular, the FSA would expect the issuer to comply with those conditions that are directed at demonstrating that it is in severe financial difficulty.
LR 1.2.5GRP

An issuer or sponsor should consult with the FSA at the earliest possible stage if it:

  1. (1)

    is in doubt about how the listing rules apply in a particular situation; or

  2. (2)

    considers that it may be necessary for the FSA to dispense with or modify a listing rule.

Address for correspondence

Note: The FSA's address for correspondence is:

The Financial Services Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London, E14 5HS

Tel: 020 7066 8333

Fax: 020 7066 8362

http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/UKLA/index.shtml

SUP 16.8.2GRP
1The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FSA in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.
SUP 16.8.3RRP
(1) 1An insurer with permission to effect orcarry outlife policies must submit to the FSA a persistency report in respect of life policies by 30 April each year in accordance with this section.(2) A firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme must submit to the FSA:(a) a data report on stakeholder pensions by 30 April each year prepared in accordance with this section; and(b) two extra data reports on stakeholder pensions prepared in accordance
SUP 16.8.4RRP
1In this section, and Forms 1R(2) to (4) in SUP 16 Annex 6R:(1) '12 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-2, '24 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-3, and so on;(2) 'CC' means the number of life policies or stakeholder pensions which: (a) were effected during the period to which the calculation
SUP 16.8.23RRP
1A firm must make and retain such records as will enable it to:(1) monitor regularly the persistency of life policies and stakeholder pensions effected through each of its representatives; and (2) make persistency reports or data reports to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.8.3R.
SUP 9.3.1GRP
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FSA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FSA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
SUP 9.3.2GRP
The FSA may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:(1) the FSA may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;(2) some of the FSA's requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FSA will wish to respond
SUP 9.3.3GRP
If the FSA intends to give a firm individual guidance on its own initiative, it will normally seek to discuss the issue with the firm and agree suitable individual guidance.
SUP 9.3.4GRP
Individual guidance given to a firm on the FSA's own initiative will normally be given in writing.
GEN 6.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm, but only with respect to business that can be regulated under section 138of the Act (General rule-making power).
GEN 6.1.4RRP
In this chapter 'financial penalty' means a financial penalty that the FSA has imposed, or may impose, under the Act. It does not include a financial penalty imposed by any other body.
GEN 6.1.7GRP
GEN 6.1.5 R and GEN 6.1.6 R do not prevent a firm or member from entering into, arranging, claiming on or making any payment under a contract of insurance which indemnifies any person against all or part of the costs of defending FSA enforcement action or any costs they may be ordered to pay to the FSA.
COLL 4.2.3RRP
(1) An ICVC or the manager of an AUT must:(a) supply a copy of the scheme's most recent prospectus drawn up and published in accordance with COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus) free of charge to any person on request; and(b) file a copy of the scheme's original prospectus, together with all revisions thereto, with the FSA .(2) An ICVC or the manager of an AUT which in either case is a UCITS scheme intending to market units in the territory of another EEA State must:(a) ensure
COLL 4.2.5RRP

This table belongs to COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus).

Document status

1

A statement that the document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date (which shall be the date of the document).

Authorised fund

2

A description of the authorised fund including:

(a)

its name;

(b)

whether it is an ICVC or an AUT and that:

(i)

unitholders are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(ii)

for an ICVC, a statement that the sub-funds of a scheme which is an umbrella are not 'ring fenced' and in the event of the umbrella being unable to meet liabilities attributable to any particular sub-fund out of the assets attributable to that sub-fund, that the remaining liabilities may have to be met out of the assets attributable to other sub-funds;

3(ba)

whether it is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme;

(c)

for an ICVC, the address of its head office and the address of the place in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(d)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FSA and relevant details of termination, if the duration of the authorised fund is limited;

(e)

its base currency;

(f)

for an ICVC, the maximum and minimum sizes of its capital; and

(g)

the circumstances in which it may be wound up under the rules and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up

Investment objectives and policy

3

The following particulars of the investment objectives and policy of the authorised fund:

(a)

the investment objectives, including its financial objectives;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including the general nature of the portfolio and, if appropriate, any intended specialisation;

(c)

an indication of any limitations on that investment policy;

(d)

the description of assets which the capital property may consist of;

(e)

the proportion of the capital property which may consist of an asset of any description;

(f)

the description of transactions which may be effected on behalf of the authorised fund and an indication of any techniques and instruments or borrowing powers which may be used in the management of the authorised fund;

(g)

a list of the eligible markets through which the authorised fund may invest or deal in accordance with COLL 5.2.10 R (2)(b) (Eligible markets: requirements);

(h)

for an ICVC, a statement as to whether it is intended that the scheme will have an interest in any immovable property or movable property ((in accordance with COLL 5.6.4 R (2) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.8 R (2) (UCITS schemes: general)) for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business;

(i)

where COLL 5.2.12 R (3) (Spread: government and public securities) applies, a prominent statement as to the fact that more than 35% of the scheme property is or may be invested in government and public securities and the names of the individual states, local authorities or public international bodies in whose securities the authorised fund may invest more than 35% of the scheme property;

(k)

for an authorised fund which may invest in other schemes, the extent to which the scheme property may be invested in the units of schemes which are managed by the authorised fund manager or by its associate;

(l)

where a scheme invests principally in scheme units, deposits or derivatives, or replicates an index in accordance with COLL 5.2.31 R or COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index), a prominent statement regarding this investment policy;

(m)

where derivatives transactions may be used in a scheme, a prominent statement as to whether these transactions are for the purposes of hedging or meeting the investment objectives or both and the possible outcome of the use of derivatives on the risk profile of the scheme;

(n)

information concerning the profile of the typical investor for whom the scheme is designed;

(o)

information concerning the historical performance of the scheme presented in accordance with COB 3.8.11 R (Specific non-real time financial promotions: past performance);

(p)

for a non-UCITS retail scheme which invests in immovables, a statement of the countries or territories of situation of land or buildings in which the authorised fund may invest;

(q)

for a UCITS scheme which invests a substantial portion of its assets in other schemes, a statement of the maximum level of management fees that may be charged to that UCITS scheme and to the schemes in which it invests;

(r)

where the net asset value of a UCITS scheme is likely to have high volatility owing to its portfolio composition or the portfolio management techniques that may be used, a prominent statement to that effect; and

(s)

for a UCITS scheme, a statement that any unitholder may obtain on request the types of information (which must be listed) referred to in COLL 4.2.3R (3) (Availability of prospectus and long report).

Reporting, distributions and accounting dates

4

Relevant details of the reporting, accounting and distribution information which includes:

(a)

the accounting and distribution dates;

(b)

procedures for:

(i)

determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid);

(ii)

unclaimed distributions; and

(iii)

if relevant, calculating, paying and accounting for income equalisation;

(c)

the accounting reference date and when the long report will be published in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R (Publication and availability of annual and half-yearly long report); and

(d)

when the short report will be sent to unitholders in accordance with COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report).

Characteristics of the units

5

Information as to:

(a)

where there is more than one class of unit in issue or available for issue, the name of each such class and the rights attached to each class in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(b)

where the instrument constituting the scheme provides for the issue of bearer certificates, that fact and what procedures will operate for them;

(c)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these amount to;

(d)

where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required, in what circumstances it may be required; and

(e)

for an AUT, the fact that the nature of the right represented by units is that of a beneficial interest under a trust.

Authorised fund manager

6

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the date of its incorporation;

(d)

the address of its registered office;

(e)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(f)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(g)

if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease; and

(h)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up.

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

7

Other than for the ACD:

(a)

the names and positions in the ICVC of any other directors (if any); and

(b)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of such directors.

Depositary

8

The following particulars of the depositary:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the address of its registered office;

(d)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(e)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom; and

(f)

a description of its principal business activity.

Investment adviser

9

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of an authorised fund:

(a)

its name; and

(b)

where it carries on a significant activity other than providing services to the authorised fund as an investment adviser, what that significant activity is.

Auditor

10

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

Contracts and other relationships with parties

11

The following relevant details:

(a)

for an ICVC:

(i)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the ACD3 which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to remuneration, termination, compensation on termination and indemnity;

3

(ii)

the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the ICVC) where these are of significance to the ICVC's business;

(iii)

if any director is a body corporate in a group of which any other corporate director of the ICVC is a member, a statement of that fact;

3

(iv)

the main terms of each contract of service between the ICVC and a director in summary form; and3

3(v)

for an ICVC that does not hold annual general meetings, a statement that copies of contracts of service between the ICVC and its directors, including the ACD, will be provided to a unitholder on request;

(b)

the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager and the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the authorised fund) where these are of significance to the authorised fund's business;

(c)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC or the manager of the AUT and the depositary which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

(d)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund is a body corporate in a group of which any director of the ICVC or the manager of the AUT is a member, that fact;

(e)

a summary of the material provisions of any contract between the authorised fund manager or the ICVC and any investment adviser which may be relevant to unitholders;

(f)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund has the authority of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC to make decisions on behalf of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC, that fact and a description of the matters in relation to which it has that authority;

(g)

what functions (if any) the authorised fund manager has delegated and to whom; and

(h)

in what capacity (if any), the authorised fund manager acts in relation to any other regulated collective investment schemes2 and the name of such schemes.

2

Register of Unitholders

12

Details of:

(a)

the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders, and where relevant the plan register is kept and can be inspected by unitholders; and

(b)

the registrar's name and address.

Payments out of scheme property

13

In relation to each type of payment from the scheme property, details of:

(a)

who the payment is made to;

(b)

what the payment is for;

(c)

the rate or amount where available;

(d)

how it will be calculated and accrued;

(e)

when it will be paid; and

(f)

where a performance fee is taken, examples of its operation in plain English and the maximum it can amount to.

Allocation of payments

14

If, in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R4 (Allocation of payments to income or capital), the authorised fund manager and the depositary have agreed that all or part of any income expense payments may be treated as a capital expense:

(a)

that fact;

(b)

the policy for allocation of these payments; and

(c)

a statement that this policy may result in capital erosion or constrain capital growth.

Moveable and immovable property (ICVC only)

15

An estimate of any expenses likely to be incurred by the ICVC in respect of movable and immovable property in which the ICVC has an interest.

Valuation and pricing of scheme property

16

In relation to the valuation of scheme property and pricing of units1:

1

(a)

either:1

1

(i)

in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,1 a provision that there must be only a single price for any unit as determined from time to time by reference to a particular valuation point; or1

(ii)

1in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy for determining prices for the sale and redemption of units by reference to a particular valuation point and an explanation of how those prices may differ;

(b)

details of:

(i)

how the value of the scheme property is to be determined in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued;

(ii)

how frequently and at what time or times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued for dealing purposes and a description of any circumstance in which the scheme property may be specially valued;

(iii)

where relevant, how the price of units of each class will be determined for dealing purposes;

1

(iv)

where and at what frequency the most recent prices will be published; and

(v)

1where relevant in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy in relation to large deals; and

(c)

if provisions in (a) and (b) do not take effect when the instrument constituting the scheme or (where appropriate) supplemental trust deed takes effect, a statement of the time from which those provisions are to take effect or how it will be determined.

Dealing

17

The following particulars:

(a)

the procedures, the dealing periods and the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager will effect:

(i)

the sale and redemption of units and the settlement of transactions (including the minimum number or value of units which one person may hold or which may be subject to any transaction of sale or redemption) for each class of unit in the authorised fund; and

(ii)

any direct issue or cancellation of units by an ICVC or by the trustee (as appropriate) through the authorised fund manager in accordance with COLL 6.2.7R (2) (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised fund manager);

(b)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(c)

whether certificates will be issued in respect of registered units;

(d)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for the issue or cancellation of units in specie;

(e)

the investment exchanges (if any) on which units in the scheme are listed or dealt;

(f)

the circumstances and conditions for issuing units in an authorised fund which limit the issue of any class of units in accordance with COLL 6.2.21 (Limited issue);

(g)

the circumstances and procedures for the limitation or deferral of redemptions in accordance with COLL 6.2.16 (Limited redemption) or COLL 6.3.8 (Deferred redemption); and

(h)

in a prospectus available during the period of any initial offer:

(i)

the length of the initial offer period;

(ii)

the initial price of a unit, which must be in the base currency;

(iii)

the arrangements for issuing units during the initial offer, including the authorised fund manager's intentions on investing the subscriptions received during the initial offer;

(iv)

the circumstances when the initial offer will end;

(v)

whether units will be sold or issued in any other currency; and

(vi)

any other relevant details of the initial offer .

Dilution

18

In the case of a single-priced authorised fund, details1 of what is meant by dilution including:

(a)

a statement explaining:

(i)

that it is not possible to predict accurately whether dilution is likely to occur; and

(ii)

which of the policies the authorised fund manager is adopting under COLL 6.3.8 (1) (Dilution) together with an explanation of how this policy may affect the future growth of the authorised fund; and

(b)

if the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment, a statement of:

(i)

the authorised fund manager's policy in deciding when to require a dilution levy, including the authorised fund manager's policy on large deals, or when to make a dilution adjustment;

(ii)

the estimated rate or amount of any dilution levy or dilution adjustment based either on historical data or future projections; and

(iii)

the likelihood that the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment and the basis (historical or projected) on which the statement is made.

SDRT provision

19

An explanation of:

(a)

what is meant by stamp duty reserve tax, SDRT provision and large deals; and

(b)

the authorised fund manager's policy on imposing an SDRT provision including its policy on large deals, and the occasions, and the likely frequency of the occasions, in which an SDRT provision may be imposed and the maximum rate of it (a usual rate may also be stated).

Forward and historic pricing

20

The authorised fund manager's normal basis of pricing under COLL 6.3.9 (Forward and historic pricing).

Preliminary charge

21

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to make a preliminary charge and specifying the basis for and current amount or rate of that charge.

Redemption charge

22

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to deduct a redemption charge out of the proceeds of redemption; and if the authorised fund manager makes a redemption charge:

(a)

the current amount of that charge or if it is variable, the rate or method of calculating it;

(b)

if the amount, rate or method has been changed, that details of any previous amount, rate or method may be obtained from the authorised fund manager on request; and

(c)

how the order in which units acquired at different times by a unitholder is to be determined so far as necessary for the purposes of the imposition of the redemption charge.

General information

23

Details of:

(a)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual and half-yearly long reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained;

(b)

the manner in which any notice or document will be served on unitholders;

(c)

the extent to which and the circumstances in which:

(i)

the scheme is liable to pay or suffer tax on any appreciation in the value of the scheme property or on the income derived from the scheme property; and

(ii)

deductions by way of withholding tax may be made from distributions of income to unitholders and payments made to unitholders on the redemption of units;

3

(d)

for a UCITS scheme, any possible fees or expenses not described in paragraphs 13 to 22, distinguishing between those to be paid by a unitholder and those to be paid out of scheme property; and3

3

3(e)

for an ICVC, whether or not annual general meetings will be held.

Information on the umbrella

24

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(a)

that a unitholder is entitled to exchange units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund (other than a sub-fund which has limited the issue of units);

(b)

that an exchange of units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund is treated as a redemption and sale and will, for persons subject to United Kingdom taxation, be a realisation for the purposes of capital gains taxation;

(c)

that in no circumstances will a unitholder who exchanges units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund be given a right by law to withdraw from or cancel the transaction;

(d)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(e)

what charges, if any, may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund;

(f)

for each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the scheme which is an umbrella; and

(g)

if there are units for less than two sub-funds in issue, the effect of COLL 3.2.7 R (Umbrella scheme with only one sub-fund).

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

25

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(a)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(b)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

Marketing in another EEA state

26

A prospectus of a UCITS scheme which is prepared for the purpose of marketing units in a EEA State other than the United Kingdom, must give details as to:

(a)

what special arrangements have been made:

(i)

for paying in that EEA State amounts distributable to unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(ii)

for redeeming in that EEA State the units of unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(iii)

for inspecting and obtaining copies in that EEA State of the instrument constituting the scheme and amendments to it, the prospectus and the annual and half-yearly long report; and

(iv)

for making public the price of units of each class; and

(b)

how the ICVC or the manager of an AUT will publish in that EEA State notice:

(i)

that the annual and half-yearly long report are available for inspection;

(ii)

that a distribution has been declared;

(iii)

of the calling of a meeting of unitholders; and

(iv)

of the termination of the authorised fund or the revocation of its authorisation.

Additional information

27

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by making reasonable enquiries, including but not confined to, the following matters:

(a)

information which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating;

(b)

a clear and easily understandable explanation of any risks which investment in the authorised fund may reasonably be regarded as presenting for reasonably prudent investors of moderate means;

(c)

if there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in the authorised fund or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:

(i)

details of that arrangement or protection;

(ii)

for any related guarantee, sufficient details about the guarantor and the guarantee to enable a fair assessment of the value of the guarantee;

(iii)

a description of the risks that could affect achievement of that return or protection; and

(iv)

details of the arrangements by which the authorised fund manager will notify unitholders of any action required by the unitholders to obtain the benefit of the guarantee; and

(d)

whether any notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager intention to propose a change to the scheme and if so, its particulars.

COLL 4.2.6GRP
(1) In relation to COLL 4.2.5R (3)(b) the prospectus might include:(a) a description of the extent (if any) to which that policy does not envisage the authorised fund remaining fully invested at all times;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme which may invest in immovable property:(i) the maximum extent to which the scheme property may be invested in immovables; and(ii) a statement of the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of3 immovables forming part of
PERG 8.4.1GRP
The Act does not contain any definition of the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’, leaving them to their natural meaning. The ordinary dictionary entries for ‘invitation’ and ‘inducement’ offer several possible meanings to the expressions. An ‘invitation’ is capable of meanings ranging from merely asking graciously or making a request to encouraging or soliciting. The expression ‘inducement’ is given meanings ranging from merely bringing about to prevailing upon or persuading.
PERG 8.4.3GRP
The FSA recognises that the matter cannot be without doubt. However, it is the FSA's view that the context in which the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’ are used clearly suggests that the purpose of section 21 is to regulate communications which have a promotional element. This is because they are used as restrictions on the making of financial promotions which are intended to have a similar effect to restrictions on advertising and unsolicited personal communications
PERG 8.4.4GRP
The FSA considers that it is appropriate to apply an objective test to decide whether a communication is an invitation or an inducement. In the FSA's view, the essential elements of an invitation or an inducement under section 21 are that it must both have the purpose or intent of leading a person to engage in investment activity and be promotional in nature. So it must seek, on its face, to persuade or incite the recipient to engage in investment activity. The objective test
PERG 8.4.6GRP
Merely asking a person if they wish to enter into an agreement with no element of persuasion or incitement will not, in the FSA's view, be an invitation under section 21. For example, the FSA does not consider an invitation to have been made where:(1) a trustee or nominee receives an offer document of some kind and asks the beneficial owner whether he wishes it to be accepted or declined;(2) a person such as a professional adviser enquires whether or not his client would be willing
PERG 8.4.8GRP
PERG 8.4.9 G to PERG 8.4.34 G apply the principles in PERG 8.4.4 G to PERG 8.4.7 G to communications made in certain circumstances. They do not seek to qualify those principles in any way. A common issue in these circumstances arises when contact details are given (for example, of a provider of investments or investment services). In the FSA's view, the inclusion of contact details should not in itself decide whether the item in which they appear is an inducement or, if so, is
PERG 8.4.15GRP
Journalism can take many forms. But typically a journalist may write an editorial piece on a listed company or about the investments or investment services that a particular firm provides. This may often be in response to a press release. The editorial may or may not contain details of or, on a website, a link to the site of the company or firm concerned. Such editorial may specifically recommend that readers should consider buying or sellinginvestments (whether or not particular
FIT 2.2.1GRP
In determining a person's competence and capability, the FSA will have regard to matters including but not limited to:(1) whether the person satisfies the relevant requirements of the FSA's Training and Competence sourcebook (TC) in relation to the controlled function the person performs or is intended to perform;(2) whether the person has demonstrated by experience and training that the person is able, or will be ableif approved, to perform the controlled function.
FIT 2.2.2GRP
A person may have been convicted of, or dismissed or suspended from employment for, drug or alcohol abuses or other abusive acts. This will be considered only in relation to a person's continuing ability to perform the particular controlled function for which the person is or is to be employed.
LR 1.3.1RRP
An issuer must provide to the FSA as soon as possible:(1) any information and explanations that the FSA may reasonably require to decide whether to grant an application for admission;(2) any information that the FSA considers appropriate to protect investors or ensure the smooth operation of the market; and [Note: Article 16.1 CARD](3) any other information or explanation that the FSA may reasonably require to verify whether listing rules are being and have been complied with
LR 1.3.2RRP
(1) The FSA may, at any time, require an issuer to publish such information in such form and within such time limits as it considers appropriate to protect investors or to ensure the smooth operation of the market. [Note: Article 16.2 CARD](2) If an issuer fails to comply with a requirement under paragraph (1) the FSA may itself publish the information (after giving the issuer an opportunity to make representations as to why it should not be published). [Note: Article 16.2 CA
LR 1.3.3RRP
An issuer must take reasonable care to ensure that any information it notifies to a RIS or makes available through the FSA is not misleading, false or deceptive and does not omit anything likely to affect the import of the information.
LR 13.1.3RRP
Information may be incorporated in a circular by reference to relevant information contained in:(1) a prospectus or listing particulars; or(2) any other published document that has been filed with the FSA.
REC 4.6.1GRP
Under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions), the FSA has the power to give directions to a recognised body in order to secure its compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act.
REC 4.6.3GRP
The FSA is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act if it considers that:(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or there has been a failure to comply with any other obligation in or under the Act which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that the recognition requirements, or other obligation in or under the Act, were satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying
REC 4.6.4GRP
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), the FSA need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8), or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it essential to do so. The FSA is likely to consider it essential to cut short the procedure if, in the absence of immediate action, there would be:(1) a serious risk of substantial losses to investors, particularly private customers; or(2) a serious threat
FIT 2.3.1GRP
In determining a person's financial soundness, the FSA will have regard to any factors including, but not limited to:(1) whether the person has been the subject of any judgment debt or award, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, that remains outstanding or was not satisfied within a reasonable period;(2) whether, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, the person has made any arrangements with his creditors, filed for bankruptcy, had a bankruptcy petition served on him, been adjudged
FIT 2.3.2GRP
The FSA will not normally require the candidate to supply a statement of assets or liabilities. The fact that a person may be of limited financial means will not, in itself, affect his suitability to perform a controlled function.
LR 5.5.1GRP
The decision-making procedures that the FSA will follow when it cancels, suspends or refuses a request to restore listing are set out in DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties)1.11
LR 5.5.2RRP
An issuer must inform the FSA if its listing has been suspended, cancelled or restored by an overseas exchange or overseas authority.
LR 5.5.3GRP
(1) The FSA will not automatically suspend, cancel or restore the listing of securities at the request of an overseas exchange or overseas authority (for example, if listing of a secondary listedissuer'ssecurities are suspended, cancelled or restored on its home exchange).(2) The FSA will not normally suspend the listing of securities where there is a trading halt for the security on its home exchange.(3) If a secondary listed issuer requests a suspension, cancellation or restoration