Related provisions for SUP 6.3.30
81 - 100 of 216 items.
(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives
or holds money in the course
of or in connection with its insurance mediation
activity.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to
a firm to the extent that it
acts in accordance with the CASS 4; or(b) to
a firm in carrying on an insurance mediation activity which is in
respect of a reinsurance contract;
or(c) to
an insurance undertaking in
respect of
An authorised
professional firm regulated by The Law Society (of England and
Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland must comply
withthe rules of its designated professional
body as specified in CASS 5.1.4 R, in force on 14 January
2005, and if it does so, it will be deemed
to comply with CASS
5.2 to CASS 5.6.
Article 53 does not apply to advice given on any of the following:(1) deposit or other bank or building society accounts (but note that providing basic advice on a stakeholder product including stakeholder deposit accounts is a separate regulated activity under article 52A of the Regulated Activities Order - see the guidance in PERG 2.7.14A G (Providing basic advice on stakeholder products));(2) interests under the trusts of an occupational pension scheme (but rights under an
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
Table Controlled activities
1. |
Accepting deposits |
2. |
Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance |
3. |
Dealing in securities and contractually based investments |
4. |
Arranging deals in investments |
5. |
Managing investments |
6. |
Safeguarding and administering investments |
7. |
Advising on investments |
8. |
Advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's |
9. |
Providing funeral plan contracts |
10. |
Providing qualifying credit |
11.3 3 |
Arranging qualifying credit etc |
12.3 3 |
Advising on qualifying credit etc |
313. |
Providing a home reversion plan |
314. |
Arranging a home reversion plan |
315. |
Advising on a home reversion plan |
316. |
Providing a home purchase plan |
317. |
Arranging a home purchase plan |
318. |
Advising on a home purchase plan |
19.3 3 |
Agreeing to do anything in 3 to 183 above 3 |
Article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services) excludes from FSA regulation certain regulated activities carried on by providers of non-motor goods and services related to travel in relation to contracts of insurance that satisfy a number of conditions. Details about the scope of this exclusion can be found at PERG 5.11.13 G to PERG 5.11.15 G (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services)
For an activity to be a regulated activity, it must be carried on in relation to 'specified investments' (see section 22 of the Act Regulated activities) and Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified investments)). For the purposes of insurance mediation activity, specified investments include the following 'relevant investments' defined in article 3(1) of the Regulated Activities Order (Interpretation):(1) rights under any contract of insurance (see article 75 (Contracts
Advice is excluded by article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order from the regulated activities of advising on investments and advising on a home finance transaction1if:1(1) the advice is given in a publication or service that is in one of three formats (see PERG 7.4.3 G and PERG 7.4.4 G); and(2) the principal purpose of the particular format is neither to give certain advice nor to lead to (or enable) certain transactions to be carried out (see PERG 7.4.5 G and PERG 7.4.10
If a person would, but for the exclusion, be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1, or any or each of them1, and will be doing so as a business in the United Kingdom (see PERG 7.3), he may wish to apply to the FSA for a certificate that the exclusion applies (see PERG 7.6). However, a person does not need a certificate to get the benefit of the exclusion. In many cases it will be clear that the exclusion in article
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
Before a firm appoints a person as an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) and on a continuing basis, it must establish on reasonable grounds that:11(1) the appointment does not prevent the firm from satisfying and continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions;(2) the person:(a) is solvent;(b) is otherwise 1suitable to act for the firm in that capacity;and1(c) has no close links which would be likely to prevent the effective supervision
1
Multiple principal agreement
Matter |
Explanation |
|
1. |
Scope of appointment |
The scope of appointment given by each principal to the appointed representative. |
2. |
Complaints handling |
The identity of the principal which will be the point of contact for a complaint from a client (referred to as the "lead-principal" in SUP 12.4.5D G to SUP 12.4.5E G). |
An agreement that each principal will co-operate with each other principal in resolving a complaint from a client in relation to the appointed representative's conduct. |
||
The arrangements for complaints handling, including arrangements for resolving disputes between the principals in relation to their liability to a client in respect of a complaint and arrangements for dealing with referrals to the Financial Ombudsman Service. |
||
3. |
The arrangements for approving financial promotion. |
|
4. |
Control and monitoring |
The arrangements for the control and monitoring of the activities of the appointed representative (see in particular SUP 12.6.6 R (Regulated activities and investment services outside the scope of appointment) and SUP 12.6.7 G (Senior management responsibility for appointed representatives)). |
5. |
Approved person status |
The arrangements for making applications for approved person status (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)). |
6. |
Training and competence |
The arrangements for training and competence (see TC). |
7. |
Co-operation |
The arrangements for co-operation over any other issues which may arise from the multiple appointments, including issues which may damage the interests of clients dealing with the appointed representative and administrative issues. |
An agreement by each principal to take reasonable steps to ensure that it does not cause the appointed representative or any of its other principals to be in breach of their obligations to each other or under the regulatory system. |
||
8. |
Sharing information |
The arrangements for sharing information on matters relevant to the matters covered under the multiple principal agreement and each principal's obligations under SUP 12.6 (Continuing obligations of firms with appointed representatives). |
An agreement that each principal will notify each other principal of any information which is materially relevant to the multiple principal agreement. |
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance mediation activity is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4) of
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
The process of applying for Part IV permission is described in AUTH 3. But a list of the activities for which permission may be given is annexed to this chapter (see PERG 2 Annex 2 G). You may find this helpful in providing an overview of the activities that are regulated. The list is included here because, with some exceptions, the investments and activities for which permission may be given are the same as the investments and activities specified in the Regulated Activities
Firms are reminded that:(1) unless expressly stated otherwise, where a rule or guidance includes a reference to a firm this includes all UK and overseas branches and representative offices of that firm, whether or not those branches or offices carry on any regulated activities; and(2) ECO 1.1.6 R has the effect that this chapter does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1
Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) gives notice of that fact to the FSA;the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.
A communication must be an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity for the restriction in section 21 to apply. Section 21(8) defines this phrase as:(1) entering or offering to enter into an agreement the making or performance of which by either party is a controlled activity; or(2) exercising any rights conferred by a controlled investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert a controlled investment.
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
In most cases, any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or an exempt person. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Introduction) contains further guidance on these consequences. In order to be authorised, a person must either:(1) hold a Part IV permission given by the FSA (see AUTH 1.3 (The Authorisation manual) and AUTH 3 (Application
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see AUTH 3). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
A common platform firm must establish, implement and maintain an adequate business continuity policy aimed at ensuring, in the case of an interruption to its systems and procedures, that any losses are limited, the preservation of essential data and functions, and the maintenance of its regulated activities, or, where that is not possible, the timely recovery of such data and functions and the timely resumption of its regulated activities.[Note: article 5(3) of the MiFID implementing
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the overseas recognised body's regulated activities to which it relates;(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the overseas recognised body in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;(3) the
Principles 6, 8 and 9 and parts of Principle 7, as qualified by PRIN 3.4.1 R, apply only in relation to customers (that is, clients which are not market counterparties). The approach that a firm needs to take regarding classificationof clients into customers and market counterparties will depend on whether the firm is carrying on designated investment business or other activities, as described in PRIN 1.2.3 G and PRIN 1.2.4 G.
1(1) All firms, except those intending only to provide basic advice on a stakeholder product, are required by COB 4.1.4 R (Requirement to classify) to classify a client before conducting designated investment business with or for him, and that classification will be applicable for the purposes of Principles 6, 7, 8 and 9.1(2) The person to whom a firmprovides basic advice on a stakeholder product will be a private customer for all purposes including the purposes of Principles
Paragraph 1, Schedule 6 to the Act
(1) |
If the regulated activity concerned is the effecting or carrying out of contracts of insurance the authorised person must be a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), a registered friendly society or a member of Lloyd's. |
(2) |
If the person concerned appears to the [FSA] to be seeking to carry on, or to be carrying on, a regulated activity constituting accepting deposits or issuing electronic money, it must be- |
(a) |
a body corporate; or |
(b) |
Section 40(1) of the Act (Application for permission) allows an application to be made to the FSA for Part IV permission by an individual, a body corporate, a partnership or an unincorporated association. However, in the case of the regulated activities of accepting deposits and effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, article 1 of the Banking Consolidation Directive and article 8(1) of the First Non-Life Directive and ofthe First Life Directive place further limits on
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
The RDC will take the decision to give a supervisory notice exercising the FSA's own initiative power (by removing a regulated activity, by imposing a limitation or requirement or by specifying a narrower description of regulated activity) if the action involves a fundamental change (see DEPP 2.5.8 G) to the nature of a permission. Otherwise, the decision to give the decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section