Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
81 - 100 of 369 items.
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) (see AUTH 1.2.2 G).. Although a person who commits the criminal offence is subject to a maximum of two years imprisonment and an unlimited fine, it is a defence for a person to show that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FSA to waive the application of certain rules in COLL and CIS to:(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT) or the ICVC and its depositary (in the case of an ICVC).2
An overseas recognised body is required to notify the FSA of certain events and give information to it on a regular basis and when certain specified events occur. Section 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) requires each overseas recognised body to provide the FSA, the Treasury and the Director General of Fair Trading with a report (at least once a year) which contains:(1) a statement as to whether any events have occurred
The period covered by a report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act starts on the day after the period covered by its last report or, if there is no such report, after the making of the recognition order recognising the overseas recognised body as such, and ends on the date specified in the report or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report.
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the FSA's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11 or a rule:(1) is
The FSA would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FSA could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FSA obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FSA will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
Where, in relation to an offer in the United Kingdom, no prospectus is required under the Act, the issuer and offeror must ensure that material information they provide to qualified investors or special categories of investors, including information disclosed in the context of meetings relating to offers, is disclosed to all qualified investors or special categories of investors to whom the offer is exclusively addressed. [Note: article 15.5 PD]
Rights under an agreement for qualifying credit are a controlled investment.Qualifying credit is defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order (Controlled activities) as credit provided pursuant to an agreement under which:(1) the lender is a person who carries on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (whether or not he is an authorised or exempt person under the Act); and(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured
Arranging qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10A of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, making arrangements:(1) for another person to enter as borrower into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(2) for a borrower under a regulated mortgage contract entered into on or after 31 October 2004 to vary the terms of that contract in such a way as to vary his obligations under that contract.This means that invitations and inducements relating
Advising on qualifying credit will be a controlled activity under paragraph 10B of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, advising a person if the advice is:(1) given to the person in his capacity as a borrower or potential borrower; and(2) advice on the merits of his doing any of the following:(a) entering into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(b) varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by him on or after 31 October 2004 in such a way
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans and home purchase plans2. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:2(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of, or with a view to, introducing the recipient to a person ('N') who is:(a) an authorised person who carries
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not mean that they are not investments but simply that they are uniformly treated
There are no exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order for this specified investment category. This is because 'collective investment scheme' is defined in section 235 of the Act (Collective investment schemes) for the purposes of the Act generally. But there is a separate power to provide for exemptions from that definition and the Treasury have exercised it (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062). The result
A firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to its premises, as described in
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
Most of the exclusions under the Directives, however, are not excluded from being regulated activities. For example, article 3 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 3 of the Non-Life Directive exclude certain mutual associations whose annual contribution income falls below a defined threshold. In the United Kingdom, these include certain smaller friendly societies commonly referred to as "non-directive friendly societies". The activities of such societies are regulated
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
Threshold condition 2(1) and (2) (Location of offices), implement the requirements of article 6 of the Post BCCI Directive and threshold condition 2(3) and (4) implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive, although the Act extends threshold condition 2 to firms which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and the UCITS Directive.1
Neither the Post BCCI Directive, the Insurance Mediation Directive nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FSA will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 1(1) the directors and other
Section 87G of the Act provides that:
(1) |
Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [ FSA]. |
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(2) |
The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FSA] for its approval. |
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(3) |
The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FSA] and ends – |
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(a) |
with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or |
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(b) |
when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins. |
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(4) |
"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
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(5) |
Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to – |
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(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and |
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(b) |
the person on whose application the prospectus was approved. |
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(6) |
A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it. |
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(7) |
Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section. |
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A supplementary prospectus must also if necessary include an amendment or supplement to the summary, and any translations of the summary, to take into account the new information. [ Note: article 16.1 PD ]Note:Section 87Q(4) of the Act sets out the rights of investors to withdraw their acceptances after a supplementary prospectus is published.
If a prospectus relating
to an issuer that has its registered
office in a country that is not an EEA State is
drawn up in accordance with the legislation of that country, the FSA may, if the United
Kingdom is the Home State in
relation to the issuer, approve
the prospectus if it is satisfied
that:(1) the prospectus has
been drawn up in accordance with international standards set by international
securities commission organisations, including the IOSCO disclosure standards;
and(2)
1This
manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved
persons and other persons,
whether or not they are regulated by the FSA. It sets out:(1) the FSA's decision-making procedure for giving statutory
notices. These are warning
notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);(2) the FSA's policy with respect to the imposition and amount of penalties
under the Act (see DEPP 6);(3) the FSA's policy with respect to the conduct of interviews by investigators
appointed
The waivers regime is overseen by a staff committee. Its responsibility is to ensure that the giving of waivers is in accordance with the requirements of the Act, of the guidance in SUP 8 and of other relevant guidance. Decisions on individual applications are made under arrangements designed to result in rapid, responsive and well-informed decision making. The arrangements include arrangements for collective decision making to set general policies, and, as necessary, determine
1If the FSA, in the course of carrying on supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate, is considering exercising its powers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), regulation 4 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations contains special provisions. The FSA must, in broad terms, do two things. Where required by those regulations, it must obtain the consent of the relevant competent authorities of the group. And, where required by those Regulations,
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying to the FSA for Part IV permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
Under section 115 of the Act, the FSA has the power to give a certificate confirming that a firm possesses any required minimum margin, to facilitate an insurance business transfer to the firm under overseas legislation from a firm authorised in another EEA State or from a Swiss general insurance company. This section provides guidance on how the FSA would exercise this power and on related matters.
Under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the FSA may, by giving a written notice, require any of the following persons to provide it with a report by a skilled person:(1) a firm; (2) any other member of the firm's group; (3) a partnership of which the firm is a member; (4) a person who has at any relevant time been a person falling within (1), (2) or (3);but only if the person is, or was at the relevant time, carrying on a business.
Where the FSA considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order, it will discuss its concerns with the applicant with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application. If the FSA decides to refuse to make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) (which applies in consequence of section 290(5) of the Act (Recognition orders)) which