Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4

81 - 100 of 557 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

REC 6.7.2GRP
The notification rules in this chapter are made by the FSA in order to ensure that it is provided with notice of events and information which it reasonably requires for the exercise of its functions under the Act.
REC 6.7.3RRP
Where an overseas recognised body includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FSA's assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it
REC 6.7.5RRP
An overseas recognised body must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that overseas recognised body is made: (1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after
REC 6.7.7RRP
Where an overseas recognised body proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FSA and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.
REC 6.7.8RRP
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
REC 6.7.13GRP
Overseas recognised bodies may apply to the FSA for a waiver of any of the notification rules. The procedure is the same as that for applications from UK recognised bodies. Guidance on the procedure is given in REC 3.3.
PERG 5.6.2GRP
The activity in article 25(1) is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about, the transaction to which the arrangement relates. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal). Article 26 excludes from article 25(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the transaction to which the arrangements relate. In the FSA's view, a person would bring about a contract of
PERG 5.6.4GRP
Article 25(2) may, for instance, include activities of persons who help potential policyholders fill in or check application forms in the context of ongoing arrangements between these persons and insurance undertakings. A further example of this activity would be a person introducing customers to an intermediary either for advice or to help arrange an insurance policy. The introduction might be oral or written. By contrast, the FSA considers that a mere passive display of literature
PERG 5.6.7GRP
In the FSA's view, 'incidental' in this context means that the activity must arise out of, be complementary to or otherwise be sufficiently closely connected with the profession or business. In other words, there must be an inherent link between the activity and the firm's main business. For example, introducing dental insurance may be incidental to a dentist's activities; introducing pet insurance would not be incidental to his activities. In addition, to be considered 'incidental',
PERG 5.6.8GRP
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
PERG 5.6.11GRP
In the FSA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word 'merely'. When a publisher, broadcaster or internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 2.8.6G (2) (Arranging
PERG 5.6.16GRP
The restriction in the scope of article 28 raises an issue where there is a trust with co-trustees, where each trustee will be a policyholder with equal rights and obligations. If the activities of one of the trustees include arranging in respect of contracts of insurance, that trustee could be viewed as arranging on behalf of his co-trustees who will also be policyholders. Similar issues also arise in respect of trustees assisting in the administration and performance of a contract
PERG 5.6.18GRP
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
PERG 5.6.19GRP
Where a person is making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments by way of making introductions, and he is not completely indifferent to whether or not transactions may result, it may still be the case that the exclusion in article 33 will apply. In the FSA's view, this is where:(1) the introduction is for independent advice on investments generally; and(2) the introducer is indifferent as to whether or not a contract of insurance may ultimately be bought (or
SUP 12.7.3GRP
A firm need not notify the FSA of any restrictions imposed on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility (under SUP 12.7.2 G (4)) if the firm accepts responsibility for the unrestricted scope of the regulated activities.
SUP 12.7.5GRP
To contact the Authorisation and Approvals Department (Authorisation teams):(1) telephone on 020 7066 1000; fax on 020 7066 1099; or(2) write to: Authorisation and Approvals Department (Authorisation teams), The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS; or(3) email appreps@ fsa.gov.uk.
SUP 12.7.7RRP
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice to the FSA of that
SUP 12.7.8RRP
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R4 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under SUP 12.7.8 R (1), the firm must state
LR 5.2.1RRP
The FSA may cancel the listing of securities if it is satisfied that there are special circumstances that preclude normal regular dealings in them. [Note: article 18(2) CARD]
LR 5.2.2GRP
Examples of when the FSA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FSA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FSA may permit (the FSA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
LR 5.2.3GRP
The FSA will generally cancel the listing of a listed company'ssecurities when it completes a reverse takeover.
LR 5.2.4RRP
An issuer must satisfy the requirements applicable to it in LR 5.2.5 R to LR 5.2.11 R and LR 5.3 before the FSA will cancel the listing of its securities at its request.
LR 5.2.5RRP
Subject to LR 5.2.6 R1LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of any of its equity shares1with a primary listing must:111(1) send a circular to the holders of the securities. The circular must:(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FSA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation (which must be not less than
LR 5.2.8RRP
An issuer that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than ordinary equity shares1with a primary listing or ordinary equity shares to which LR 5.2.5A R apply1) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:

1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or

2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.

SUP 6.2.14GRP
A firm making an application to vary or cancel its Part IV permission which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this at the same time as applying to the FSA for the variation or cancellation. See SUP 6 Annex 4 for additional procedures.
LR 10.8.1GRP
(1) A listed company in severe financial difficulty may find itself with no alternative but to dispose of a substantial part of its business within a short time frame to meet its ongoing working capital requirements or to reduce its liabilities. Due to time constraints it may not be able to prepare a circular and convene an extraordinary general meeting to obtain prior shareholder approval.(2) The FSA may modify the requirements in LR 10.5 to prepare a circular and to obtain shareholder
LR 10.8.2GRP
The listed company should demonstrate to the FSA that it could not reasonably have entered into negotiations earlier to enable shareholder approval to be sought.
LR 10.8.3GRP
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FSA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
LR 10.8.4GRP
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
LR 10.8.6GRP
(1) The FSA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FSA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
SUP 15.6.1RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the FSA in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgments, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.
SUP 15.6.2GRP
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative);(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA):(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule 2 which contains a consolidated
SUP 15.6.3GRP
If a firm is unable to obtain the information required in SUP 15.6.1 R(2), then it should inform the FSA that the scope of the information provided is, or may be, limited.
SUP 15.6.4RRP
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FSA immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an explanation
SUP 15.6.6GRP
The FSA may request the firm to provide revised documentation containing the correct information, if appropriate.
SUP 15.6.7GRP
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA'srules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the
PERG 8.6.1GRP
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
PERG 8.6.2GRP
Apart from the originators of a financial promotion, the FSA considers the following persons to be communicating it or causing it to be communicated:(1) publishers and broadcasters who carry advertisements (including websites carrying banner advertisements); and(2) intermediaries who redistribute another person’s communication probably with their own communications.
PERG 8.6.3GRP
In the FSA's view, the following persons will not be causing or communicating:(1) advertising agencies and others when they are designing advertising material for originators;(2) persons who print or produce material for others to use as advertisements;(3) professional advisers when they are preparing material for clients or advising them on the need to communicate or the merits or consequences of their communicating a financial promotion; and(4) persons who are responsible for
PERG 8.6.4GRP
The FSA considers that, to communicate, a person must take some active step to make the communication. This will be a question of fact in each case. But a person who knowingly leaves copies of a document where it is reasonable to presume that persons will pick up copies and may seek to act on them will be communicating them.
PERG 8.6.7GRP
A general point arises about causing and communicating on whether a particular exemption that applies to a communication made by a specified person also applies to a person who is causing that communication to be made. For example, article 551 of the Financial Promotion Order (Communications by members of professions)1 applies only to a communication by an exempt professional firm.1 This exemption may apply where a person ('P') requests an exempt professional firm ('E') to1communicate
PERG 8.6.8GRP
Another general point arises about the scope of exemptions that apply only to financial promotions by a particular person. This is whether the exemption applies to the communication of a financial promotion by an unauthorised person on behalf of the person to whom the exemption applies. In the FSA's view, this will not be the case unless the exemption specifically states that it applies to a communication made on behalf of the person identified in the exemption. For example, article
PERG 8.6.10GRP
In the FSA's opinion, the matters in PERG 8.6.9 G have the following effects.(1) Any one particular communication will either be real time or non-real time but not both. This is because:(a) a real time communication is one made in the course of an interactive dialogue (see PERG 8.10.2 G for guidance on the meaning of real time);(b) those exemptions which concern real time communications apply only to communications which are made to persons and not those which are directed at
SUP 14.3.3GRP
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
SUP 14.3.4GRP
Under regulation 5(4), the FSA is required, as soon as practicable after receiving the notice in SUP 14.3.3 G, to inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
COLL 6.9.3GRP
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT, the FSA would interpret the concept of directors in common to include
COLL 6.9.4GRP
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FSA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FSA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
COLL 6.9.5GRP
The FSA would encourage relevant parties to consult it in advance about its view on the consequences of any intended contractual commitment or relationship which could affect independence, whether directly or indirectly.
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
COLL 6.9.8GRP
When deciding whether COLL 6.9.7R is complied with, the FSA will take into account COLL 6.9.6G. COLL 6.9.7R applies generally and not just to the names that include the words "guaranteed" or "capital protected".
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
GENPRU 3.1.15GRP
GENPRU 3.1.25 R is a high level capital adequacy rule. It applies whether or not the FSA is the coordinator of the financial conglomerate concerned.
GENPRU 3.1.16GRP
GENPRU 3.1.26 R to GENPRU 3.1.31 R and GENPRU 3 Annex 1 implement the detailed capital adequacy requirements of the Financial Groups Directive. They only deal with a financial conglomerate for which the FSA is the coordinator. If another competent authority is coordinator of a financial conglomerate, those rules do not apply with respect to that financial conglomerate and instead that coordinator will be responsible for implementing those detailed requirements.
GENPRU 3.1.19GRP
Paragraph 5.7 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (Capital adequacy calculations for financial conglomerates) deals with a case in which there are no capital ties between entities in a financial conglomerate. In particular, the FSA, after consultation with the other relevant competent authorities and in accordance with Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive, will determine which proportional share of a solvency deficit in such an entity will have to be taken into account, bearing in mind
GENPRU 3.1.21GRP
Where GENPRU 3.1.20 G does not apply, the Annex I method to be applied isdecided by the coordinator after consultation with the relevant competent authorities and the financial conglomerate itself.
GENPRU 3.1.30RRP
With respect to a firm and a financial conglomerate of which it is a member:(1) GENPRU 3.1.26 R (Method 4 from Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive) is applied to the firm with respect to that financial conglomerate for the purposes of GENPRU 3.1.27R (2); or(2) GENPRU 3.1.29 R (Methods 1 to 3 from Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive) is applied to the firm with respect to that financial conglomerate;if the firm'sPart IV permission contains a requirement obliging the
GENPRU 3.1.33GRP
Articles 7(3) (Risk concentration) and 8(3) (Intra-group transactions) and Annex II (Technical application of the provisions on intra-group transactions and risk concentration) of the Financial Groups Directive say that Member States may apply at the level of the financial conglomerate the provisions of the sectoral rules on risk concentrations and intra-group transactions. GENPRU 3.1 does not take up that option, although the FSA may impose such obligations on a case by case
GENPRU 3.1.39RRP
(1) In accordance with Article 30 of the Financial Groups Directive (Asset management companies), this rule deals with the inclusion of an asset management company that is a member of a financial conglomerate in the scope of regulation of financial conglomerates. This rule does not apply to the definition of financial conglomerate.(2) An asset management company is in the overall financial sector and is a regulated entity for the purpose of:(a) GENPRU 3.1.26 R to GENPRU 3.1.36
REC 4.5.3GRP
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FSA powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the FSA to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FSA may direct a UK recognised body to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FSA must consult the recognised body concerned. The FSA may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section
REC 4.5.4GRP

The Companies Act 1989: section 166

The FSA may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989:

Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under itsdefault rules- if it appears to [the FSA] that it could take action, [the FSA may direct it to do so,

but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989:

Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and [the FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market,

The FSA may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989:

Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FSA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FSA] may direct it not to do so.

but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989:

Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and the [FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market.

REC 4.5.5GRP
The FSA's view is that the exercise of these powers will only be justified in exceptional circumstances. The most likely case in which the FSA would consider exercising them is if there were a need to coordinate action by different UK recognised bodies because, for example: (1) the likelihood of a default may not be apparent to all UK recognised bodies; or(2) there was a need to avoid premature default action by one UK recognised body; or(3) significantly different settlement
REC 4.5.8GRP
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK recognised body has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FSA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK recognised body concerned under its default rules. However, the FSA cannot give such a direction unless it is satisfied that this will not impede or frustrate the proper and efficient conduct of the default proceedings.
REC 4.5.9GRP
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE or a member of a UK RCH:(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK recognised body has not taken action under its default rules as a result of
REC 4.5.10GRP
The effect of an application under section 167 of the Companies Act 1989 is to require the UK recognised body concerned to take action under its default rules or to require the FSA to take action under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (see REC 4.5.4G).
REC 4.5.11GRP
The procedure is that the FSA must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: (1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FSA that it proposes to take action forthwith; or(3) is directed to take action by the FSA under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market contracts
PERG 9.8.1GRP
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FSA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
PERG 9.8.2GRP
In the FSA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FSA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FSA's view, there is no realisation of value where
PERG 9.8.3GRP
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FSA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
PERG 9.8.4GRP
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FSA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
PERG 9.8.5GRP
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FSA considers that a reasonable investor
PERG 9.8.7GRP
In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
PERG 9.8.9GRP
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FSA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
SUP 21.1.1GRP
1SUP 21 Annex 1 sets out a form of waiver that the FSA will be minded to give to energy market participants in the exercise of its statutory discretion under section 148 of the Act to grant a waiver of certainrules.
SUP 21.1.2GRP
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
SUP 21.1.3GRP
Accordingly, the FSA must be satisfied that the statutory criteria will be met in each case where an energy market participant applies for a waiver in the form in SUP 21 Annex 1.
SUP 21.1.4GRP
In particular, clause 4 of the form of waiver in SUP 21 Annex 1 will not ordinarily be inserted in waivers for energy market participants that will not, at the time the waiver will take effect, clearly satisfy the conditions set out in that clause. For these purposes the FSA will take into account the relative proportions of the energy market participant's assets and revenues that are referable to the various parts of its business, as well as to any other factor that the FSA considers
PERG 7.7.1GRP
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FSA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FSA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
PERG 7.7.3GRP
The FSA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FSA's own initiative if the FSA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FSA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
PERG 7.7.4GRP
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FSA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FSA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
PERG 7.7.5GRP
For further information contact the Perimeter Enquiries Team of the FSA (email: authorisationenquiries@fsa.gov.uk, Tel 020 7066 0082).
DEPP 2.2.1GRP
If FSA staff consider that action requiring a warning notice or first supervisory notice is appropriate, they will recommend to the relevant decision maker that the notice be given.
DEPP 2.2.2GRP
For first supervisory notices, the FSA staff will recommend whether the action should take effect immediately, on a specified date, or when the matter is no longer open to review (see DEPP 2.2.5 G).
DEPP 2.2.3GRP
The decision maker will:(1) consider whether the material on which the recommendation is based is adequate to support it; the decision maker may seek additional information about or clarification of the recommendation, which may necessitate additional work by the relevant FSA staff;(2) satisfy itself that the action recommended is appropriate in all the circumstances;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
DEPP 2.2.4GRP
If the FSA decides to take no further action and the FSA had previously informed the person concerned that it intended to recommend action, the FSA will communicate this decision promptly to the person concerned.
DEPP 7.1.1GRP
1DEPP 7 applies when the FSA:(1) has appointed an investigator at the request of an overseas regulator, under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) of the Act; and(2) has directed, or is considering directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) of the Act, to permit a representative of the overseas regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation.
DEPP 7.1.2GRP
In DEPP 7, a "section 169(7) interview" means any interview conducted for the purposes of an investigation under section 169(1)(b) of the Act in relation to which the FSA has given a direction under section 169(7) of the Act.
DEPP 7.1.3GRP
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FSA's statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction under section 169(7) has been given or the FSA is considering giving. The FSA is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by section 169(9) and (11) of the Act. As required by section 169(10) of the Act, the Treasury has approved the statement of policy.
DEPP 7.1.4GRP
The FSA is keen to promote co-operation with overseas regulators. It views provision of assistance to overseas regulators as an essential part of the principles set out in section 2(3)(e) of the Act to which it must have regard in discharging its general functions.
LR 4.3.2RRP
The FSA will approve listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars if it is satisfied that the requirements of the Act and this chapter have been complied with.
LR 4.3.3GRP
The FSA will try to notify the applicant of its decision on an application for approval of listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars within the same time limits as are specified in section 87C of the Act (consideration of application for approval) for an application for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus.
LR 4.3.4RRP
An issuer must ensure that listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars are not published until they have been approved by the FSA.
LR 4.3.5RRP
An issuer must ensure that after listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars are approved by the FSA, the listing particulars or supplementary listing particulars are filed and published as if the relevant requirements in PR 3.2 and the PD Regulation applied to them.
LR 2.1.2GRP
Under the Act, the FSA may not grant an application for admission unless it is satisfied that:(1) the requirements of the listing rules are complied with; and(2) any special requirement (see LR 2.1.4 R) is complied with.
LR 2.1.3GRP
Under the Act, the FSA may also refuse an application for admission if it considers that:(1) admission of the securities would be detrimental to investors' interests; or(2) for securities already listed in another EEA State, the issuer has failed to comply with any obligations under that listing.
LR 2.1.4RRP
(1) The FSA may make the admission of securities subject to any special requirement that it considers appropriate to protect investors. [Note: article 12 CARD](2) The FSA must explicitly inform the issuer of any special requirement that it imposes. [Note: article 12 CARD]
LR 2.1.5GRP
2The FSA is not able to make the admission of securities conditional on any event. The FSA may, in particular cases, seek confirmation from an issuer before the admission of securities that the admission does not purport to be conditional on any matter.