Related provisions for LR 11.1.5A
341 - 360 of 557 items.
The purpose of this appendix is to describe how FOS Ltd must handle relevant existing complaints (that is, the partly completed complaints which it inherits from the former schemes at commencement under the Ombudsman Transitional Order). Complaints which firms (as opposed to the former schemes) have partly completed at commencement will be handled as described in DISP 1 (Complaint handling procedures for firms) (see, in particular, DISP 1.4.6 R).
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (2) On suspension, the authorised fund manager, or the depositary if it has required the authorised
(1) Notification of suspicious transactions to the FSA requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction might constitute market abuse. In particular a firm will need to be able to explain the basis for its suspicion when notifying the FSA (see SUP 15.10 R). Certain transactions by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious, but might deliver such indications of possible market abuse,
An investment firm or a credit institution making a notification to the FSA under this section may do so:(1) by mail to:Market Conduct Team25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS; or(2) by electronic mail to market.abuse@fsa.gov.uk;(3) by facsimile to the Market Conduct Team on 020 7066 1099; or(4) by telephone to the market abuse helpline 020 7066 4900. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]
If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 153 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)2. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).3
The FSA will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case when deciding whether to impose a penalty or issue a public censure. As such, the factors set out in DEPP 6.4.2 G are not exhaustive. Not all of the factors may be relevant in a particular case and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.
The criteria for determining whether it is appropriate to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are similar to those for determining the amount of penalty set out in DEPP 6.5. Some particular considerations that may be relevant when the FSA determines whether to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are:(1) whether or not deterrence may be effectively achieved by issuing a public censure;(2) if the person has made a profit or avoided
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see AUTH 3). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see AUTH 3 (Applications for Part IV permission). If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FSA; and(b) be carrying
The following factors may be relevant to determining the appropriate level of financial penalty to be imposed on a person under the Act:(1) DeterrenceWhen determining the appropriate level of penalty, the FSA will have regard to the principal purpose for which it imposes sanctions, namely to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from committing further breaches and helping to deter other persons from committing
In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FSA may have regard to whether: (1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to admit
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (See SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; (2) to
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually, containing the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable).(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware:(a) that it has any controllers; or(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report under (1); or(c) of any changes in the percentage of shares or voting power in the firm held by any controllers
Unless FEES 6.3.22 R applies, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied;(2) calculating the amount of the participant firm's regulatory costs as a proportion of the total regulatory costs relating to all participant firms for the relevant financial year; and(3) applying the proportion
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA States which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letter "D" unless they form part of a piece of guidance. For a discussion of the status of provisions marked with a letter, see Chapter 6 of the Reader's Guide.1(2) Where the guidance states that the FSA may have regard to any factor in assessing or determining whether a recognition requirement
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations and the Companies Act 1989 and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning as Handbook defined terms
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA State which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
Neither the Post BCCI Directive, the Insurance Mediation Directive nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FSA will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 1(1) the directors and other
The FSA would normally expect a firm to carry out a check on its appointed representative's financial position every year (more often, if necessary) and to review critically the information obtained. An appropriately experienced person (for example, a financial accountant) should carry out these checks.
Firms should be aware that, under the approved persons regime, the firm is responsible for submitting applications to the FSA for the approval as an approved person of:(1) any individual who performs a controlled function and who is an appointed representative; and(2) any person who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by any of the firm'sappointed representatives.Applications for approval should be submitted as early as possible since a person may