Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
201 - 220 of 369 items.
(1) Although MCOB does not apply directly to a firm's appointed representatives, a firm will always be responsible for the acts and omissions of its appointed representatives in carrying on business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act). In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision of MCOB, anything done or omitted by a firm's appointed representative (when acting as such) will be treated as having been done or omitted by the
Any person who is contemplating carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments by way of business will need authorisation or exemption. AUTH explains about the authorisation process and the procedures for obtaining Part IV permission and for the approval of individuals. Exemption would usually be obtained by a person entering into an agreement with an authorised person under section 39 of the Act
1This
chapter applies to an issuer that
has applied for the admission of:(1) securities specified
in Schedule 11A of the Act (other
than securities specified in
paragraphs 2, 4 or 9 of that Schedule); or(2) any other specialist
securities for which a prospectus is
not required under the prospectus directive.
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FSA needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FSA to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to tell the FSA appropriately anythingof which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. The reporting requirements are part of the
(1) 1This rule applies to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listeddebt securities for whom the United Kingdom is its home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.(2) An issuer referred to in paragraph (1) that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules must comply with:(a) DTR 5.6.3 R (disclosure of changes in rights);(b) DTR 6.1.2 R (amendments to constitution);(c) DTR 6.1.3 R (2) (equality of treatment);(d)
The FSA expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognition requirements. This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FSA will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FSA will usually arrange meetings between
Where a UK recognised body has evidence tending to suggest that any person has:(1) been carrying on any regulated activity in the United Kingdom in contravention of the general prohibition; or(2) been engaged in market abuse; or(3) committed a criminal offence under the Act or subordinate legislation made under the Act; or(4) committed a criminal offence under Part V of the Criminal Justice Act 1993 (Insider dealing); or(5) committed a criminal offence under the Money Laundering
The property belonging to BC may be property of any description, including money. For example, the arrangements may relate to real estate, works of art or a particular enterprise or rural activity. It must, of course, be possible to value the property if the requirements of the investment condition concerned with the link to net asset value are to be met (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act))).
Rights conferred on third parties (such as a firm'sclients) cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. Guidance on rules, the Act or other legislation represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)) or in relation to enforceability of a contract if the general prohibition is breached (sections 26 and 27 of the Act (Enforceability
The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that the FSA will consider when assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate for a controlled function (see generally SUP 10 on approved persons). The criteria are also relevant in assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of approved persons. The criteria that the FSA will consider in relation to an authorised person are described in COND.
Sections 393 (Third party rights) and 394 (Access to FSA material) of the Act confer additional procedural rights relating to third parties and to disclosure of FSA material. These rights apply in certain warning notice and decision notice cases referred to in section 392 of the Act (Application of sections 393 and 394). The cases in which these additional rights apply are identified in DEPP 2 Annex 1 by asterisks; these are generally cases in which the warning notice or decision
1LR applies as follows:(1) all of LR (other than LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7) applies to an issuer; and(2) LR 1, LR 8.1, LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7 apply to a sponsor and a person applying for approval as a sponsor.FSA performing functions as competent authorityNote: In relation to the listing rules, the FSA is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Note: when exercising its functions as the competent
By waiving or modifying the requirements
of a rule or imposing an additional requirement or limitation,
the FSA can
ensure that the rules, and
any other requirements or limitations imposed on a firm,
take full account of the firm's individual
circumstances, and so assist the FSA in
meeting the regulatory objectives (for
example, to protect consumers and maintain market confidence).
Where an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier wishes to cancel its top-up permission, either with or without cancellation of its qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3, 4, or 5 to the Act, it should make an application following the procedures set out in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).
Section 81 of the Act (supplementary listing particulars) requires
an issuer to submit supplementary listing particulars to the FSA for approval if at any time after listing particulars have been submitted
to the FSA and before the commencement of dealings
in the securities following
their admission to the official list:(1) there is a significant change affecting
any matter contained in those particulars the inclusion of which was required
by:(a) section 80 of the Act (general
(1) If the FSA considers that an issuer, a person discharging managerial responsibilities or a connected person has breached any of the disclosure rules it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty or publish a statement censuring that person.(2) If the FSA considers that a former director was knowingly concerned in a breach by an issuer it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty.