Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

BIPRU 7.4.23RRP
If a firm intends to rely on the approach in BIPRU 7.4.22R(1)(b):(1) it must notify the FSA in writing at least 20 business days prior to the date the firm starts relying on it; and(2) the firm must, as part of the notification under (1), provide to the FSA the analysis of price movements on which it relies.
FEES 4.3.2GRP
(1) The amount payable by each firm will depend upon the category (or categories) of regulated activities it is engaged in (fee-blocks), and on the amount of business it conducts in each category (tariff base). The fee-blocks and tariffs are identified in in respect of the FCA and in respect of the PRAFEES 4 Annex 1, while FEES 4 Annex 2 sets out the tariff rates for the relevant financial year.(2) Incoming EEA firms, and incoming Treaty firmsreceive a discount to reflect the
PR 2.4.1RRP
(1) Information may be incorporated in the prospectus by reference to one or more previously or simultaneously published documents that have been approved by the competent authority of the Home State1 or filed with or notified to it in accordance with the prospectus directive1 or titles IV and V of CARD.11(2) In particular under paragraph (1), information may be incorporated by reference to information contained or referred to in an annual information update.1 [Note: article
SUP 15.4.1RRP
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility
LR 8.4.1RRP
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.6 R apply in relation to an application for admission of equity securities if an applicant does not have equity securities already listed and:(1) the production of a prospectus is required; or(2) the application is accompanied by a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or(3) the application is accompanied by a summary document as required byPR 1.2.3R (8).
BIPRU 8.3.24GRP
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the FSA contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country banking or investment services undertaking in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention here is
DISP 3.3.4RRP
In DISP 3.3.1 R (5) the transaction could, for example, be a pension transaction which has been reviewed by the firm in accordance with the relevant regulatory standards. The Ombudsman may decide not to proceed with a complaint about the result of that review unless he considers that the standards or guidance published by the regulator did not address the particular circumstances of the case.
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance.

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform, settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply.

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures.

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FSA will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where relevant, any spent convictions excepted underthe Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exceptions) Order 1975 (see Articles 3 and 4 of the order); particular consideration will be given to offences of dishonesty, fraud, financial crime or an offence whether or not in the
SUP App 2.15.14GRP
The FSA may request additional information and explanations from the firm. (See section 165 (Authority's power to require information) of the Act.)
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
SUP 16.8.10RRP
1Life policies falling within SUP 16.8.8 R, which were sold subject to the conduct of business rules of a previous regulator, need to be reported only if they were required to be reported on by the rules of the previous regulator of the firm submitting the report.
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
SUP 2.3.1GRP
The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have
GEN 4.2.1GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to amplifyPrinciple 7 (Communications with clients), which requires a firm to pay due regard to the information needs of its clients. This chapter requires the provision of appropriate minimum information about the identity of a firm's regulator in a way which is as consistent as practicable across the whole range of activities regulated by the FSA This assists in the achievement of the regulatory objectives of consumer protection, public awareness
REC 4.5.3GRP
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FSA powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the FSA to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FSA may direct a UK recognised body to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FSA must consult the recognised body concerned. The FSA may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section