Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11
1 - 20 of 536 items.
A firm must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to its customers and which
The circumstances which may give rise to any of the events in SUP 15.3.1 R are wide-ranging and the probability of any matter resulting in such an outcome, and the severity of the outcome, may be difficult to determine. However, the FSA expects firms to consider properly all potential consequences of events.
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FSAappropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the FSA may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the FSA. A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the FSA to take action. A firm should also have regard to Principle
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies); or(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;by (or as regards (c) against) the firm or any of its directors, officers, employees,
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the FSA needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.
A firm must notify the FSA immediately of any of the following events:(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm; or(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies; or(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm; or(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors; or(5) an application for the appointment of an administrator
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the FSAto:(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Authority's general duty);(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce the provisions of the
3The Society must immediately inform the FSA in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the FSA may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
3The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
3The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or (2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.
The FSA has divided its definition of capital into categories, or tiers, reflecting differences in the extent to which the capital instruments concerned meet the purpose and conform to the characteristics of capital listed in GENPRU 2.2.9 G. The FSA generally prefers a firm to hold higher quality capital that meets the characteristics of permanency and loss absorbency that are features of tier one capital. Capital instruments falling into core tier one capital can be included
This table belongs to GENPRU 2.2.17 R
Type of firm |
Location of rules |
Remarks |
BIPRU investment firm without an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 4 (Deducts material holdings) |
Applies to a BIPRU investment firm not using GENPRU 2 Annex 5 or GENPRU 2 Annex 6 |
BIPRU investment firm without an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 5 (Deducts illiquid assets) |
A BIPRU investment firm must give one Month's prior notice to the FSA before starting to use or stopping using this method |
BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Deducts illiquid assets and material holdings) |
A firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver must use this method. No other BIPRU investment firm may use it. |
GENPRU 2.2.19 R sets out three different methods of calculating capital resources for BIPRU investment firms. The differences between the three methods relate to whether and how material holdings and illiquid assets are deducted when calculating capital resources. The method depends on whether a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver. If a firm does have such a waiver, it should deduct illiquid assets, own groupmaterial holdings and certain contingent liabilities. If
The FSA considers that dividend pushers diminish the quality of capital by breaching the principle of complete discretion over coupons set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (4). A dividend pusher operates so that, in a given period of time, payments must be made on senior securities if payments have previously been made on junior securities or securities ranking pari passu. As such, dividend pushers may not be included in the terms of tier one capital, unless the firm has the option to fund
A firm may not include a capital instrument in its tier one capital resources, unless its contractual terms are such that:(1) (if it is redeemable other than in circumstances set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (3)(a) (redemption on a winding up)) it is redeemable only at the option of the firm; and(2) the firm cannot exercise that redemption right:(a) before the fifth anniversary of its date of issue;(b) unless it has given notice to the FSA in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.74 R; and(c)
A firm may include a term in a tier one instrument allowing the firm to redeem it before the date in GENPRU 2.2.70R (2)(a) if the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the other conditions in GENPRU 2.2.70 R are met;(2) the circumstance that entitles the firm to exercise that right is a change in law or regulation in any relevant jurisdiction or in the interpretation of such law or regulation by any court or authority entitled to do so;(3) it would be reasonable for the firm
The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.71 R to GENPRU 2.2.72 R is this. In general a tier one instrument should not be redeemable by the firm before its fifth anniversary. However there may be circumstances in which it would be reasonable for the firm to redeem it before then. GENPRU 2.2.71 R allows the firm to include a right to redeem the instrument before the fifth anniversary in certain circumstances. A tax call is an example of a term that may be allowed. GENPRU 2.2.71 R says that the
If a firm has surplus eligible partnership capital or eligible LLP members' capital that it wishes to repay in circumstances other than those set out in GENPRU 2.2.93 R or GENPRU 2.2.94 R it may apply to the FSA for a waiver to allow it to do so. If a firm applies for such a waiver the information that the firm supplies with the application might include:(1) a demonstration that the firm would have sufficient capital resources to meet its capital resources requirement immediately
A firm must not amend the terms of the capital or the documents referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (8) unless:(1) at least one Month before the amendment is due to take effect, the firm has given the FSA notice in writing of the proposed amendment and the FSA has not objected; and(2) that notice includes confirmation that the legal opinions referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (12) and, if applicable, GENPRU 2.2.163 R (General conditions for eligibility as tier two capital instruments:
In relation to a tier two instrument, a firm must notify the FSA:(1) in the case of an insurer, six Months; and(2) in the case of a BIPRU firm, one Month;before the date of the proposed repayment (unless that firm intends to repay an instrument on its final maturity date) providing details of how it will meet its capital resources requirement after such repayment.
A BIPRU firm which adopts the standardised approach to credit risk may include general/collective provisions in its tier two capital resources only if:(1) they are freely available to the firm;(2) their existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and(3) their amount is determined by the management of the firm, verified by independent auditors and notified to the FSA.
A person wanting to provide services as a sponsor , and to be included on the list of sponsors, must apply to the FSA for approval as a sponsor by submitting the following to the Sponsor Supervision Team at the FSA address:(1) a completed Sponsor Firm Application Form; (2) completed Sponsor Employee Application Forms; and(3) the application fee set out in 1FEES 31[Note: The Sponsor's Firm Application Form and the Sponsor Employee Application Formcan be found on the UKLA section
When considering an application for approval as a sponsor the FSA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;(2) request that the applicant or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application; and(4) request that any information
The FSA will approve a person as a sponsor only if it is satisfied that the person is:(1) an authorised person or a member of a designated professional body;(2) competent to perform the services set out in LR 8.2, LR 8.3 and LR 8.4; and(3) has adequatesystems and controls in place to ensure that it cancarry out its role as a sponsor.
The nature and extent of the systems and controls which a sponsor will need to maintain will depend upon a variety of factors including:(1) the nature, scale and complexity of its business;(2) the diversity of its operations;(3) the volume and size of the transactions it undertakes;and(4) the volume and size of the transactions it anticipates undertaking in the following year.
A sponsor must provide to the FSA on an annual basis:(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R;(2) an up to date list of employees that are suitably experienced on whom the sponsor can rely to demonstrate that it satisfies the criteria set out in LR 8.6.5 R;(3) for each employee whose name is on the list maintained by the sponsor under LR 8.6.15 R, details of the transactions on which the employee has
A sponsor must notify the FSA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R; or(2) the sponsor, or any of its employees whose names are on the list maintained by the sponsor under LR 8.6.15 R, are:(a) convicted of any offence involving fraud, theft or other dishonesty; or(b) the subject of a bankruptcy proceeding, a receiving order or an administration order; or(3) any of its employees whose names
A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the sponsor's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the cancellation to take effect, after having taken into account LR 8.7.24G (2);(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not participate in any services described in LR 8.2 as of the date the request is submitted to the FSA; and(5) the
Under section 148(4) of the Act, the FSA may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
The FSA will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. However, the FSA will aim to give waiver decisions within 20 business days of receiving an application which includes sufficient information. If the FSA expects to take longer, it will tell the firm and give an estimated decision date. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs
The FSA will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FSA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FSA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3
In some cases, the FSA may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The FSA may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.
If the FSA believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.
Under section 148(2) of the Act the FSA may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the FSA in exceptional circumstances where the FSA considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the FSA will inform the firms concerned that the waiver is available, either by contacting firms individually or by publishing details
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 1
(1) The [UK RIE] must have financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its [ relevant functions] as a [UK RIE]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FSA] may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with anyperson , and any activity carried on by the [UK RIE], whether or not it is anexempt activity.1 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its relevant functions, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the operational and other risks to which the UK recognised body is exposed;(2) if the UK recognised body acts as a central counterparty or otherwise guarantees the performance of transactions in specified investments, the counterparty and market risks to which it is exposed in that capacity; (3) the amount and composition
In assessing whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to counterparty and market risks, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the amount and liquidity of its financial assets and the likely availability of liquid financial resources to the UK recognised body during periods of major market turbulence or other periods of major stress for the financial system; and(2) the nature and scale of the UK recognised body's exposures to counterparty and market
In assessing whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to operational and other risks, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which, after allowing for the financial resources necessary to cover counterparty and market risks, the UK recognised body's financial resources are sufficient and sufficiently liquid:(1) to enable the UK recognised body to continue carrying on properly the regulated activities that it expects to carry on; and(2) to ensure
The FSA considers that a UK recognised body which (after allowing for the financial resources necessary to cover counterparty and market risks) has at any time:(1) liquid financial assets amounting to at least six months' operating costs; and (2) net capital of at least this amount; will, at that time, have sufficient financial resources to meet the recognition requirement unless there are special circumstances indicating otherwise.
The FSA recognises that UK recognised bodies may wish to satisfy the recognition requirements in different ways. The FSA does not prescribe any particular approach to calculating financial resources or to assessing their adequacy. It is willing to discuss with each UK recognised body the most appropriate way for it to meet the recognition requirement and each UK recognised body will need to be able to show the FSA that its financial resources are at all times sufficient to meet
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
|
(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
|
(a) |
the transmission of information; |
|
(b) |
the assessment and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
|
(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.1 |
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In assessing whether the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body in the performance of its relevant functions are adequate and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business, the FSA may have regard to the UK recognised body's:(1) arrangements for managing, controlling and carrying out its relevant functions, including: (a) the distribution of duties and responsibilities among its key individuals and the departments of the UK recognised body responsible for performing
The following paragraphs set out other matters to which the FSA may have regard in assessing the systems and controls used for the transmission of information, risk management, the effecting and monitoring of transactions, the operation of settlement arrangements (the matters covered in paragraphs 4(2)(d) and 19(2)(b) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations) and the safeguarding and administration of assets .
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the transmission of information, the FSA may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls ensure that information is transmitted promptly and accurately: (1) within the UK recognised body itself; (2) to members; and (3) (where appropriate) to other market participants or other relevant persons.
In assessing a UK RIE's systems and controls for the effecting and monitoring of transactions, and the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body for the operation of settlement arrangements, the FSA may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes through which a transaction is effected, cleared and settled, including:(1) a UK RIE's arrangements under which orders are received and matched, and its arrangements for trade and transaction reporting, and (if
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which the UK recognised body: (1) records the assets held and the identity of the owners of (and other persons with relevant rights over) those assets; (2) records any instructions given in relation to those assets;(3) records the carrying out of those instructions;(4)
The FSA recognises that a UK recognised body has legitimate interests of its own and that its general business policy may properly be influenced by other persons (such as its owners). Such a connection does not necessarily imply the existence of a conflict of interest nor is it necessary to exclude individuals closely connected with other persons (for example, those responsible for the stewardship of the owner's interests) from all decision-making processes in a UK recognised
The FSA may have regard to the arrangements a UK recognised body makes to structure itself and to allocate responsibility for decisions so that it can continue to take proper regulatory decisions notwithstanding any conflicts of interest, including:(1) the size and composition of the governing body and relevant committees; (2) the roles and responsibilities of key individuals, especially where they also have responsibilities in other organisations; (3) the arrangements for transferring
The FSA may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FSA etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.
The FSA may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the governing body, members of relevant committees and other key individuals and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
Information technology is likely to be a major component of the systems and controls used by any UK recognised body. In assessing the adequacy of the information technology used by a UK recognised body to perform or support its relevant functions, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the organisation, management and resources of the information technology department within the UK recognised body;(2) the arrangements for controlling and documenting the design, development, implementation
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FSA a fee for each application or request for vetting or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, as is applicable to it, as set out or calculated in accordance with the provisions referred to in column (2) of that table:(1) in full and without deduction; and(2) on or before the date given in column (3) of that
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
Table of application, notification and vetting fees
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments): (i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or (ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 . 112 |
If the firm is applying to the FSA:2 (1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2 (2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2 212 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2 2 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission |
(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 11 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document ; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion. |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism. |
20,000 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
The FSA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
In the FSA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
In the FSA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity jointly. In the FSA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen during negotiations for the sale of a company
In the FSA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
In the FSA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
In the FSA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FSA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules in COB 3 or MCOB 3 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not been approved
In the FSA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FSA's view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FSA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FSA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
In the FSA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
In the FSA's opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction. The Treasury, in its consultative document “Financial Services and Markets Act two year review: Changes to secondary legislation Proposals for change, February 2004” proposed changes
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures. In the FSA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture and partly an option is a relevant investment for these
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FSA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
(1) If a firm wishes to apply for a variation of Part IV permission, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 (Variation of permission application form).7(2) A firm's application for variation of Part IV permission must be given or addressed, and delivered in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.6 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application for variation of Part IV permission
DEC gives guidance on the FSA's decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part IV permission either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FSA but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period of at least 12 months (irrespective of the date of grant). (2) If the FSA considers that such a variation or cancellation
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FSA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appropria
The FSA is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FSA on its behalf.
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA; and(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in :
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FSA, the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FSA, designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FSA on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FSA. Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FSAno later than the end of that period; and (2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the end of that period.
The FSA has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FSA. [For further details see the FSA website.]
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FSA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FSA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FSA's objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
The FSA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FSA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
Other things being equal, the FSA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FSA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FSA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FSA is unlikely
The FSA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FSA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FSA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FSA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FSA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
(1) An insurer must notify the FSAin respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result of
(1) 467In accordance with article 25of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 1 April 2004, a firm is required to notify the FSA:(a) before it begins; and(b) as soon as reasonably practicable after it ceases;to operate a bureau de change (within (a) of money service business)(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFSA, as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer Revenue allocated CTFs; and(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FSA does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it may seek this by using its general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative)).
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the FSA's regulatory tools. The tool may be used:(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing; and (4) for
The decision to require a report by a skilled person will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation or expert advice or recommendations. It will usually be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development relating or relevant to a firm, or prompted by a need for verification of information provided to the FSA
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person, the FSA will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other statutory powers;(3) legal and procedural considerations;(4) the objectives of the FSA's enquiries;(5) cost considerations; and(6) considerations relating to FSA resources.SUP 5.3.4 G to SUP 5.3.10 G give further guidance
The FSA will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FSA has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;(4) objectivity: whether the FSA has confidence in the firm's willingness
The FSA will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by FSA staff or a request for information on an informal basis); (2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Authority's power to require information);(3) appointing investigators to carry out general investigations
The FSA will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons);(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent proceedings; and(3) application of the Handbookrules: whether it is important that the relevant rules
The FSA will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FSA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Authority's power to require information), 167 (Appointment of persons
In accordance with its general policy the FSA will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:(1) if the FSA uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person;(2) if the FSA uses its other information gathering and investigation powers, it will either authorise or appoint its own staff to undertake the information gathering
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FSA will take into account relevant factors, including:(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business and its risk profile, or the operation of its information systems, or improvements to its systems
The FSA will have regard to FSA-related considerations including:(1) FSA expertise: whether the FSA has the necessary expertise; and(2) FSA resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries are available within the FSA, or whether the exercise will be the best use of the FSA's resources at the time.
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
As part of the decision making process the FSA will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed, and the likely cost.
The FSA will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G of the purpose of the report, its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The FSA will state the matters which the report is to contain as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may be required to address key risks, key controls and the control environment. The FSA attaches importance to there being a timetable for each report and to
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the FSA's requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the FSA, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The FSA recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions may include others if appropriate.
When considering whether to nominate or approve a skilled person to make a report, the FSA will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilledperson appears to have:(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned;(2) the ability to complete the report within the time expected by the FSA;(3) any relevant specialised knowledge, for instance of the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, the type of business carried on by the person in SUP 5.2.1
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the FSA to nominate or approve the appointment of a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. For example, the FSA may nominate, or approve the appointment of, the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G to prepare a report taking into account, where relevant, the considerations set out in SUP 5.4.7 G.
The FSA will normally require the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to appoint the skilled person to report to the FSA through that person. In the normal course of events the FSA expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report prior to its submission to the FSA (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the reporting process).
The FSA will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report. The skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered on time, he should inform the FSA and the person in SUP 5.2.1 G as soon as possible. If the skilled person becomes aware that there may be difficulties delivering
The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have
The FSA expects to request meetings or access to business premises during reasonable business hours. The FSA also normally expects to be able to give reasonable notice to a firm or connected person when it seeks information, documents, meetings or access to business premises. On rare occasions, however, the FSA may seek access to premises without notice. The prospect of unannounced visits is intended to encourage firms to comply with the requirements and standards under the
In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the FSA of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the FSA as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the FSA reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession or control, and provide any facilities which the representatives
In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the following persons act in the manner set out in SUP 2.3.3 G: (1) its employees, agents and appointed representatives; and(2) any other members of its group, and their employees and agents.(See also, in respect of appointed representatives, SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the FSA, or persons appointed for the purpose by the FSA, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the FSA's functions under the Act.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements and appointed representatives permit such access to their business premises. (See also, in respect
The cooperation that a firm is expected to procure from such suppliers is similar to that expected of the firm, in the light of the guidance in SUP 2.3.3 G to SUP 2.3.4 G, but does not extend to matters outside the scope of the FSA's functions in relation to the firm. SUP 2.3.5 R (2) also requires a firm to take reasonable steps regarding access to the premises of such suppliers.
When a firm appoints or renews the appointment of a supplier under a material outsourcing arrangement, it should satisfy itself that the terms of its contract with the supplier require the supplier to give the FSA access to its premises as described in SUP 2.3.5 R (2), and to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.7 R. The FSA does not consider that the 'reasonable steps' in SUP 2.3.7 R would require a firm to seek to change a contract, already in place when that rule
The FSA may ask a firm to provide it with information at the request of or on behalf of other regulators to enable them to discharge their functions properly. Those regulators may include overseas regulators or the Takeover Panel. The FSA may also, without notifying a firm, pass on to those regulators information which it already has in its possession. The FSA's disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to the obligation described in SUP 2.2.4 G (Confidentiality
Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post to the published address of the FSA for postal submission of reports |
2. |
Leaving the report at the published address of the FSA for hand delivery of reports and obtaining a dated receipt |
3. |
Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
4. |
Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining a dated receipt |
5. |
Fax to the number notified by the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the report.72 |
7
6. |
Online submission via the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk8 |
8
137. |
Electronic submission via the Early Reporting System available from or through the FSA's website.13 |
- (1)
The current published address of the FSA for postal submission of reports is:
The Financial ServicesAuthority
PO BOX 35747
London E14 5WP
- (2)
The current published address of the FSA for hand delivery of reports is:
- (a)
The Financial ServicesAuthority
25 The North Colonnade
Canary Wharf
London E14 5HS
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in London, or:
- (b)
The Financial ServicesAuthority
Quayside House
127 Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in Edinburgh.2
- (a)
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the FSA no later than the due date, specified for that report.(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the due date. (3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter is a set
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions (see ENF 13.5). A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FSA by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the FSA's offices by the due date. If a report is received by the FSA after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by the due
(1) A firm must notify the FSA if it changes its accounting reference date.(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the FSA of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the FSA. This is because many due dates for reporting to the FSA are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the FSA have due dates for submission which are linked to the firm's accounting
SUP 2.3.12 G states that the FSA may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The FSA's disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G (Confidentiality of information).
An applicant for recognised
body status needs to demonstrate to the FSA that it is able to meet the recognition requirements before a recognition
order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognition requirements at all times. (Guidance on
the recognition requirements applicable to UK
recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2).
(1) There
is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the
Markets Division at the FSA at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and
practical aspects of its application.(2) It
is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a
reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed
and clear proposal.
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FSA may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) or section 288 (Application by a clearing
house) of the Act;(2) be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions (the material specifically prescribed in section 287 or section
288);(3) be
accompanied by the information, evidence and explanatory material (including
supporting documentation) necessary to demonstrate to the FSA that
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary), the FSA may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FSA will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.
At any time after making a formal
application, the applicant may make amendments to its rules, guidance or any
other part of its application submitted to the FSA. Any amendments or additional information are likely to be forwarded
by the FSA to the Director General of Fair Trading and the Treasury under
section 303 of the Act (Initial
report by Director) (see REC 5.1.5 G).
(1) The FSA will
keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.(2) It
may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of
its proposals. The FSA may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may
invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When
requested to do so, the FSA will explain the nature of the information which it has asked
an applicant to supply in connection with its application.
Where the FSA considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order, or to seek the
Treasury's approval, it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FSA decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) and described
Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).
(1) |
Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance. |
(2) |
Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity. |
(3) |
Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform, settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply. |
(4) |
Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts. |
(5) |
Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body. |
(6) |
A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available. |
(7) |
Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant. |
(8) |
Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements. |
(9) |
Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security. |
(10) |
Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems. |
(11) |
Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks. |
(12) |
Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements. |
(13) |
Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest. |
(14) |
Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA. |
(15) |
Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements. |
(16) |
A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached. |
(17) |
Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules. |
(18) |
Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures. |
(19) |
Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities. |
(20) |
Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law. |
(21) |
Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities. |
(22) |
Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters. |
(23) |
Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes. |
(24) |
Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints. |