Related provisions for PERG 7.7.5
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(1) Notification of suspicious transactions to the FSA requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction might constitute market abuse. In particular a firm will need to be able to explain the basis for its suspicion when notifying the FSA (see SUP 15.10 R). Certain transactions by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious, but might deliver such indications of possible market abuse,
An investment firm or a credit institution making a notification to the FSA under this section may do so:(1) by mail to:Market Conduct Team25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS; or(2) by electronic mail to market.abuse@fsa.gov.uk;(3) by facsimile to the Market Conduct Team on 020 7066 1099; or(4) by telephone to the market abuse helpline 020 7066 4900. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]
This chapter provides assistance in determining whether or not behaviour amounts to market abuse. It also forms part of the UK's implementation of the Market Abuse Directive (including its EU implementing legislation, that is Directive 2003/124/EC, Directive 2003/125/EC, Regulation 2273/2003 and Directive 2004/72/EC). It is therefore likely to be helpful to persons who:(1) want to avoid engaging in market abuseor to avoid requiring or encouraging another to do so; or(2) want to
The purpose of this chapter is to provide guidance as to:(1) when a person involved in publishing periodicals, or in providing news services or broadcasts, requires authorisation to carry on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 7.3 (Does the activity require authorisation));(2) if he does, whether he qualifies for the exclusion from those activities that applies to a periodical publication, a regularly updated
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act. The guidance represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts, for example in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of section 19 (The general prohibition) of the Act (see section 26 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements)). Although the guidance
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see AUTH 3). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see AUTH 3 (Applications for Part IV permission). If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FSA; and(b) be carrying
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the rules relating to the internal handling of complaints by firms, including the procedures which a firm must put in place; the time limits within which a firm must deal with a complaint; the referral of complaints,4 the records of a complaint which a firm must make and retain; and the requirements on a firm to report information about complaints to the FSA. This is to ensure that complaints are handled fairly, effectively and promptly,
1The disclosure rules apply as follows:(1) DTR 1 and DTR 2 apply to an issuer whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom or for which a request for admission to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom has been made;(2) DTR 3 applies to an issuer that is incorporated in the United Kingdom:(a) whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or(b) for whose financial instruments a request
In relation to the disclosure rules, the FSA is exercising its functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure rules apply include DEC (the Decision making manual), Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual) and Chapter 21 of ENF (the Enforcement manual).Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FSA
In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FSA may have regard to whether: (1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to admit
Cases (a) to (h) in DTR 5.2.1 R identify situations where a person may be able to control the manner in which voting rights are exercised and where, (taking account of any aggregation with other holdings) a notification to the issuer may need to be made. In the FSA's view:(1) Case (e) produces the result that it is always necessary for the parent undertaking of a controlled undertaking to aggregate its holding with any holding of the controlled undertaking (subject to the exemptions
A person falling within Cases (a) to (h) is an indirect holder of shares for the purpose of the definition of shareholder. These indirect holdings have to be aggregated, but also separately identified in a notification to the issuer. Apart from those identified in the Cases (a) to (h), the FSA does not expect any other significant category "indirect shareholder" to be identified. Cases (a) to (h) are also relevant in determining whether a person is an indirect holder of qualifying
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (See SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; (2) to
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually, containing the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable).(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware:(a) that it has any controllers; or(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report under (1); or(c) of any changes in the percentage of shares or voting power in the firm held by any controllers
Unless FEES 6.3.22 R applies, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied;(2) calculating the amount of the participant firm's regulatory costs as a proportion of the total regulatory costs relating to all participant firms for the relevant financial year; and(3) applying the proportion
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA States which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letter "D" unless they form part of a piece of guidance. For a discussion of the status of provisions marked with a letter, see Chapter 6 of the Reader's Guide.1(2) Where the guidance states that the FSA may have regard to any factor in assessing or determining whether a recognition requirement
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations and the Companies Act 1989 and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning as Handbook defined terms
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA State which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
Neither the Post BCCI Directive, the Insurance Mediation Directive nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FSA will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 1(1) the directors and other