Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11

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COLL 3.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the scheme)

Name of scheme

1

A statement of:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund; and

(2)

whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme.

Investment powers in eligible markets

2

A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the scheme, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers).

Unitholder's liability to pay

3

A provision that a unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds.

Base currency

4

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

Valuation and pricing

5

A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme.

Duration of the scheme

6

If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect.

Object of the scheme

7

A statement:

(1)

as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and

(2)

that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property.

Government and public securities: investment in one issuer

8

Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) as to the individual states or bodies in which over 35% of the value of the scheme may be invested in government and public securities.

Classes of unit

9

A statement:

(1)

specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes.

Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses

10

A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property.

Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or trustee

11

Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or trustee directly.

In specie issue and cancellation

12

Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash.

Restrictions on sale and redemption

13

Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption).

Voting at meetings

14

The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights).

Certificates

15

A statement:

(1)

authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and

(2)

authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units.

Income

16

A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income.

Income equalisation

17

Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation.

Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

18

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares

19

A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class.

ICVCs: resolution to remove a director

20

A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director.

ICVCs: unit transfers

21

A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) or for an ICVC established in Northern Ireland, paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 to the Open-Ended Investment Companies Regulations (Northern Ireland) 2004 (SR 2004/335) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1

ICVCs: Charges and expenses

22

A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVC may be taken out of the scheme property.

AUTs: governing law for a trust deed

23

A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative

24

A statement that the trust deed:

(1)

is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and

(2)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms.

AUTs: declaration of trust

25

A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(1)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(2)

the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution).

AUTs: trustee's remuneration

26

Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.

AUTs: responsibility for the register

27

A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register.

DISP 3.3.4RRP
In DISP 3.3.1 R (5) the transaction could, for example, be a pension transaction which has been reviewed by the firm in accordance with the relevant regulatory standards. The Ombudsman may decide not to proceed with a complaint about the result of that review unless he considers that the standards or guidance published by the regulator did not address the particular circumstances of the case.
PERG 2.9.22GRP
3The exclusions for business angel-led enterprise capital funds are also disapplied for persons who, in carrying on the relevant regulated activity, are investment firms (see PERG 2.5.4 G (Investment services and activities)).
FEES 5.4.1RRP
(1) A firm must provide the FSA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FSA) with a statement of the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted, as at or in the year to 31 December of the previous year as appropriate, in relation to the tariff base for each of the relevant industry
LR 8.2.1RRP
A company with, or applying for, a primary listing of its equity securities must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:(1) makes an application for admission of equity securities which:(a) requires the production of a prospectus; or(b) is accompanied by a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or(c) is accompanied by a summary document as required by PR 1.2.3R (8); or(2) is required to producea class 1 circular; or(3) is producinga circular that proposes
REC 2.10.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FSA, or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial
DISP 1.4.2GRP
A firm which is able to provide a final response within five business days of receipt of a complaint may combine its acknowledgement of the complaint with the final response. (For complaints which are subject to the FSAVC review, see DISP 1.4.15 R to DISP 1.4.17 G.)
SUP 11.4.2ARRP
1A UK insurance intermediary must notify the FSA of any of the following events concerning the firm:(1) a person acquiring control;(2) in relation to an existing controller:(a) the percentage of shares held in the firm decreasing from 20% or more to less than 20%; or(b) the percentage of shares held in a parent undertaking of the firm decreasing from 20% or more to less than 20%; or(c) the percentage of voting power which it is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of,
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FSA.
PERG 8.7.5GRP
In the FSA's opinion, section 21 will apply to a communication (made in the course of business) if it contains an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is addressed to a particular person or to persons generally. Where this is the case, it will not matter that the communication may be physically delivered to someone other than the person who is intended to engage in investment activity. PERG 8.6.10 G gives more guidance on this.
PERG 4.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
MCOB 12.1.5GRP
The FSA will expect a firm to ensure that charges made to a customer arising from the sale of a repossessed property and charges arising in relation to a mortgage shortfall debt are not excessive and are subject to the same considerations as apply with respect to arrears charges under this chapter.
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

MCOB 6.5.6RRP
If a firm makes an offer to a retail customer with a view to entering into a regulated mortgage contract a which is a distance contract, it must provide the retail customer with the following information with the offer document:(1) the EEA State or States whose laws are taken by the firm as a basis for the establishment of relations with the customer prior to the conclusion of the regulated mortgage contract;(2) any contractual clause on law applicable to the regulated mortgage
LR 18.4.4RRP
Prior to any change of the depositary of certificates representing certain securities, the new depositary must satisfy the FSA that it meets the requirements of LR 18.2.11 R to LR 18.2.14 R.
FEES 6.3.3GRP
The FSCS may impose one or more levies in a financial year to meet either its management expenses or its compensation costs. The FSCS may also impose interim levies, as part of its overall levy commitment. This flexibility allows the FSCS to phase its financing over the course of a financial year and thus avoid collecting levies from firms before the money is actually needed. The FSCS has committed itself in the Memorandum of Understanding with the FSA (the text of which can
DISP 3.8.3RRP
The Ombudsman's determination will include the following stages:(1) When a complaint has been determined, the Ombudsman will give both the complainant and the firm a signed written statement of the determination, stating the reasons for it.(2) The statement will invite the complainant to notify the Ombudsman in writing before the date specified in the statement whether he accepts or rejects the determination.(3) If the complainant notifies the Ombudsman that he accepts the determination