Related provisions for COLL 3.2.4
Table of application, notification and vetting fees
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(o) A firm applying for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either)1 in connection with rules (or future rules)1 implementing the revised Basel Capital Accord (including any amendments) 11 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6 (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission |
(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 11 |
On or before the date the application is made |
1Activities set out in Article 5(2) and (3) of the UCITS Directive
Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities |
Part II RAO Activities |
Part III RAO Investments |
|
1. |
The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2). |
Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 51, 53, 64 |
Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89 |
2. |
Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section Bof theAnnex to the ISD. |
Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64 |
Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89 |
3. |
Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section Bof theAnnex to the ISD. |
Articles 53, 64 |
Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89 |
4. |
Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings. |
Articles 40, 45, 64 |
Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89 |
Note 1. A UCITS management company can only exercise passport rights under the UCITS Directive (article 2(2)(h) of the ISD). A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table. |
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Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are: |
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1. |
Investment management. |
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2. |
Administration: |
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a. |
legal and fund management accounting services; |
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b. |
customer inquiries; |
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c. |
valuation and pricing (including tax returns); |
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d. |
regulatory compliance monitoring; |
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e. |
maintenance of unit-holder register; |
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f. |
distribution of income; |
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g. |
unit issues and redemptions; |
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h. |
contract settlements (including certificate dispatch); |
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i. |
record keeping. |
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3. |
Marketing. |
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This table belongs to BIPRU 3.7.1 R
[Note: BCD Annex II]
Category |
Item |
Percentage |
Full risk |
Guarantees having the character of credit substitutes Credit derivatives Acceptances Endorsements on bills not bearing the name of another credit institution Transactions with recourse Irrevocable standby letters of credit having the character of credit substitutes Assets purchased under outright forward purchase agreements Forward deposits The unpaid portion of partly-paid shares and securities Asset sale and repurchase agreements as defined in Article 12(3) and (5) of the Bank Accounts Directive Other items also carrying full risk |
100% |
Medium risk |
Documentary credits issued and confirmed (see also medium/low risk). Warranties and indemnities (including tender, performance, customs and tax bonds) and guarantees not having the character of credit substitutes. Irrevocable standby letters of credit not having the character of credit substitutes. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of more than one year. Note issuance facilities (NIFs) and revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs). |
50% |
Medium/low risk |
Documentary credits in which underlying shipment acts as collateral and other self-liquidating transactions. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of up to and including one year which may not be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice or that do not effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness. |
20% |
Low risk |
Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) which may be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice, or that do effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness. Retail credit lines may be considered as unconditionally cancellable if the terms permit the firm to cancel them to the full extent allowable under consumer protection and related legislation. |
0% |
1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.
Act |
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admission to trading |
admission to trading on a regulated market. |
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advertisement |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements: |
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(1) |
relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and |
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(2) |
aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities. |
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annual information update |
the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R. |
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applicant |
an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities. |
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asset backed security |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which: |
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(1) |
represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or |
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(2) |
are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets. |
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base prospectus |
a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R. |
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body corporate |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom; |
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building block |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up. |
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CARD |
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CESR recommendations |
the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators. |
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collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type |
(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies: |
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(1) |
the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading; |
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(2) |
the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings. |
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Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive |
Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities. |
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credit institution |
as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive. |
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director |
(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties. |
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EEA State |
(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom. |
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equity security |
(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer. |
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equity share |
shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital. |
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equity share capital |
(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution. |
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executive procedures |
the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that the FSA proposes to follow in the circumstances specified in DEC 4.1.6 G (Decisions to be taken by executive procedures), and that are described in DEC 4.3 (Executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions). |
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FSA |
the Financial Services Authority. |
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guarantee |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment. |
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guarantor |
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Home State or Home Member State |
(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive). |
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Host State or Host Member State |
(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State. |
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Investment Services Directive |
the Council Directive of 10 May 1993 on investment services in the securities field (No 93/22/EEC). |
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ISD |
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issuer |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question. |
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non-equity transferable securities |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities. |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities". |
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offer |
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offer of transferable securities to the public |
(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary: |
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(a) |
a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:
to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question; |
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(b) |
which is made in any form or by any means; |
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(c) |
including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary; |
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(d) |
but not including a communication in connection with trading on:
|
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Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act. |
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offering programme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period. |
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offeror |
a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public. |
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overseas company |
a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom. |
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Part 6 rules |
(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act. |
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PD |
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PD Regulation |
Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission. |
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person |
(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership). |
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PR |
the Prospectus Rules sourcebook. |
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profit estimate |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published. |
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profit forecast |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used. |
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property collective investment undertaking |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term. |
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prospectus |
a prospectus required under the prospectus directive. |
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prospectus directive |
the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC). |
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Prospectus Rules |
(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities. |
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Public international body |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members. |
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qualified investor |
(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) : |
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(a) |
any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive; |
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(b) |
An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R; |
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(c) |
An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive. |
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register |
register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act. |
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registration document |
a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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regulated information |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC. |
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regulated market |
(a) |
(as defined in article 1 of the ISD) a market for the instruments listed in Section B of the Annex to the ISD which:
|
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(b) |
a market notified under article 16 of the ISD, as included in point 30b of Annex IX to the Agreement of the European Economic Area, to the Standing Committee of the EFTA States as defined in that agreement. |
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RIS |
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risk factors |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions. |
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rule |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act. |
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schedule |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved. |
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securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner |
(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months. |
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securities note |
a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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small and medium-sized enterprise |
(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000. |
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special purpose vehicle |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities. |
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statutory notice associated decision |
a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision: |
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statutory notice decision |
a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice. |
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(a) |
to determine or extend the period for making representations; |
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(b) |
to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations; |
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(c) |
to refuse access to FSA material; |
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(d) |
as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates. |
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summary |
(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus. |
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supplementary prospectus |
a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy. |
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transferable security |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of the investment services directive, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security". |
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umbrella collective investment scheme |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities. |
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United Kingdom |
England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man). |
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units of a collective investment scheme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets. |
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working day |
(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom. |
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Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.
Chapter: |
Applicable to: |
About: |
Authorisation and regulated activities |
|
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Issuing e-money |
a person who needs to know
|
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Regulated activities connected with mortgages |
any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages |
Insurance mediation activities |
any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance |
Identification of contracts of insurance |
any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance |
the general principles and range of specific factors that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance |
Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification |
any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service |
|
Financial promotion and related activities |
any person who needs to know
|
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Meaning of open-ended investment company |
any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme. |
the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company |
Activities related to pension schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1 |
|
Property investment clubs and land investment schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
|
Running or advising on personal pension schemes |
any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities |
the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant |
Guidance on the scope of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive and the recast Capital Adequacy Directive [to be issued] |
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Home reversion and home finance activities |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans or home purchase plans will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
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