Related provisions for PERG 4.5.12
Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R
This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G
Question |
Answer |
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1 |
Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person? |
An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application). In particular, an incoming EEA firm is referred to the EEA investment business oversight function (CF 9, see SUP 10.7.6 R). |
2 |
If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately? |
If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes. |
3 |
What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context? |
The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms. |
4 |
If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee? |
Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7). |
5 |
Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner? |
Yes. |
6 |
Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive? |
Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7). |
7 |
If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual? |
Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2. But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1). If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate. See also Question 14. |
8 |
If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive? |
Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). |
9 |
What if a firm does not have a chief executive? |
Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3. But if the firm: (1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and (2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division; then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2 |
10 |
What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"? |
A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided. If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to: (1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions; together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.) |
11 |
How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier? |
The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but: (1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1.1.7 R). Note that SYSC 1.1.10 R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm. (2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility. The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1). |
12 |
How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm? |
SYSC 1.1.1 R (2) and SYSC 1.1.7 R restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly: (1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1). (2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SYSC App 1). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch. (3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2). (4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. See also Questions 1 and 15.1 |
13 |
What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership? |
The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2). |
14 |
What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance? |
The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governancerecommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1). |
15 |
What about incoming electronic commerce activities? |
ECO 1.1.6 R has the effect that SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1 |
Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)
(1) Category of firm |
(2) Sections applicable to the firm |
(3) Sections applicable to its auditor |
|
(1) |
Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,10 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Note 1) |
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(2) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2) |
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(3) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(4) |
Bank or building society which in either case carries on designated investment business (Note 2A) |
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(5) |
Bank or building society which in either case does not carry on designated investment business (Note 2A) |
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(5A) |
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(5B) |
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(6) |
Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser (Note 5)7 |
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(7) |
Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm (Note 3) which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 9 |
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9(7A) |
Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm not within (7) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies |
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9(7B) |
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(8) |
Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(9)8 |
Mortgage lender8 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 |
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(10)8 |
Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which CASS 5 (Client money and mandates) (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 |
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(11)8 |
Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(12)8 |
Mortgage intermediary or mortgage administrator which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. |
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Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R. |
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Note 2 = In row (2): (a) CASS 2 (Client assets) is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguarding and administering investments in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguarding and administering investments in relation to bonded investments; (b) CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client; but, if CASS 2 or CASS 4 is treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of CASS 2 or CASS 4. |
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Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general: core investment services by investment firms). |
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Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. |
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Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8 |
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Note (5) = In row (6):7 |
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(a)7 |
SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7 |
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(b)7 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567 |
Table of application, notification and vetting fees
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(o) A firm applying for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either)1 in connection with rules (or future rules)1 implementing the revised Basel Capital Accord (including any amendments) 11 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6 (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission |
(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 11 |
On or before the date the application is made |
Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.
Chapter: |
Applicable to: |
About: |
Authorisation and regulated activities |
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Issuing e-money |
a person who needs to know
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Regulated activities connected with mortgages |
any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
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the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages |
Insurance mediation activities |
any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
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the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance |
Identification of contracts of insurance |
any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance |
the general principles and range of specific factors that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance |
Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification |
any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service |
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Financial promotion and related activities |
any person who needs to know
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Meaning of open-ended investment company |
any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme. |
the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company |
Activities related to pension schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1 |
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Property investment clubs and land investment schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
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Running or advising on personal pension schemes |
any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities |
the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant |
Guidance on the scope of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive and the recast Capital Adequacy Directive [to be issued] |
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Home reversion and home finance activities |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans or home purchase plans will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
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