Related provisions for SUP 11.4.1

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PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom.Registered EEA-based insurance intermediaries
SUP 3.3.2RRP
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 3.1) must:(1) appoint an auditor;(2) notify the FSA, without delay, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 2R (Standing data form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;2(3) appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor which has arisen; (4) ensure that the replacement auditor can take up office at the
GEN 1.3.2RRP
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

Activities set out in Annex I of the BCD1

1

Table 1: BCD activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Acceptance of deposits and other repayable funds from the public

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

1 1

Note 1. The BCD activity of trading for account of customers does not extend to the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order unless the arrangements bring about or would bring about particular transactions.

REC 3.14.11RRP
Where a UK recognised body proposes to change its normal hours of operation, it must give the FSA notice of that proposal, and particulars of, and the reasons for, the actions proposed, at the same time as the proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders, or any group or class of them.
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the FSA to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the FSA before applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission.
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
DTR 3.1.1GRP
1This chapter sets out the notification obligations of issuers, persons discharging managerial responsibilities and their connected persons in respect of transactions conducted on their own account in shares of the issuer, or derivatives or any other financial instrument relating to those shares.
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A UK insurance intermediary3

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21

FEES 1.1.2RRP
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to:(a) every applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission);(b) every Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right; (c) every applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;(d) every
LR 16.4.3RRP
In addition to the definition in LR 11.1.4 R a related party includes any investment manager of the venture capital trust.
COLL 8.6.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is good and sufficient reason in the interests of unitholders or potential unitholders and the authorised fund manager
SUP 13A.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive.2(1A) Similarly, an EEA firm which:2(a) has satisfied the
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the applicable provisions (if any) within
SUP 16.9.2GRP
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FSA is in a better position to pursue the regulatory objective of the protection of consumers.3
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.

Firm receives permission; or Firm extends permission

Any firm which reports its reportable transactions to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR).

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Issuer (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

Sponsors

10,00010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3

(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.1