Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2

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SUP 5.5.1RRP
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in
SUP 5.5.2GRP
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person
SUP 5.5.9RRP
A firm must provide all reasonable assistance to any skilled person appointed to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons).
SUP 5.5.12GRP
In complying with Principle 11, a firm is expected to take reasonable steps to ensure that a skilled person delivers a report in accordance with the terms of his appointment.
SUP 5.5.13GRP
Section 166(5) of the Act (Authority's power to require information) imposes a duty on certain persons to give assistance to a skilled person. The persons on whom this duty is imposed are those who are providing, or have at any time provided, services to any person falling within SUP 5.2.1 G. They include suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements.
SUP 12.2.1GRP
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
SUP 12.2.4GRP
The Act and the Appointed Representative Regulations do not prevent an appointed representative from acting for more than one principal. However, SUP 12.5.6A R (Prohibition of multiple principals for certain activities) prevents this for particular kinds of business.5
SUP 12.2.7GRP
(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under section 39(1) of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt, which is business which comprises any of:(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to a pure protection contract (but only where the contract is not a long-term care insurance contract) or general
SUP 12.2.9GRP
To become an introducer appointed representative, a person must meet the conditions in the Act to become an appointed representative (see SUP 12.2.2 G).5
SUP 12.2.13GRP
(1) An introducer is an individual appointed by a firm or by an appointed representative of such a firm to carry out, in the course of designated investment business, either or both of the following activities:4(a) effecting introductions; (b) distributing non-real time financial promotions.(2) An introducer is not an exempt person under section 39 of the Act (unless he is also an introducer appointed representative) and hence cannot benefit from the exemption to carry on regulated
SUP 12.3.1GRP
In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act ).
SUP 12.3.2GRP
The firm is responsible, to the same extent as if it had expressly permitted it, for anything the appointed representative does or omits to do, in carrying on the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act).
SUP 12.3.3GRP
In determining whether the firm has committed any offence, however, the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative are not attributable to the firm, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to it (section 39(6) of the Act).
SUP 11.7.1GRP
The approval procedures are summarised in SUP 11 Annex 3.
SUP 11.7.2GRP
If the FSA decides to approve a proposed acquisition or increase of control unconditionally, it must give an 'approval notice' without delay (section 184(1) of the Act).
SUP 11.7.3GRP
Alternatively, the FSA may decide to approve the proposed acquisition or increase of control subject to such conditions as it considers appropriate, having regard to the FSA's duty to ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions (section 185 of the Act).(1) If the FSA proposes to approve subject to conditions, it must give a warning notice.2(2) If the FSA decides to proceed to approve subject to conditions, it must give a decision
SUP 11.7.4GRP
A notice which approves a change of control (with or without conditions) is effective only for a limited period as set out in the notice (or, if no such period is specified, for one year) (section 184(3) of the Act). An approved change in control may not therefore take place after the end of this period.
SUP 11.7.13GRP
Before giving an approval notice orwarning notice , the FSAmust comply with certain requirements as to consultation with 1competent authorities outside the United Kingdom (sections 183(2) and 188(2) of the Act and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Consultation with Competent Authorities) Regulations 2001). The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special provision in relation to (the change in control over a UK authorised person (within the meaning of section
PERG 5.12.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 5.12.2GRP
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part IVpermission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).

PERG 5.12.6GRP
In determining the location of an activity, and hence whether it is carried on in the United Kingdom, various factors need to be taken into account in turn, notably:(1) section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom);(2) the nature of the activity; and(3) the overseas persons exclusion (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Overseas persons)).
PERG 5.12.7GRP
Section 418 of the Act extends the meaning that 'carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would normally have by setting out additional cases in which a person who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is to be regarded as doing so. Each of the following cases thus amounts to carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom:(1) where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise
PERG 5.12.9GRP
Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
PERG 2.5.4GRP
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of the Investment Services Directive. In this Directive, persons (called 'investment firms') who are caught by the Directive must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. An investment firm is any person whose ordinary business involves the provision to third parties on a professional basis of core investment services (these services are described in the extract from the Directive in
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by the Investment Services Directive. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by the Directive) have been made unavailable to investment firms. Article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general) lists a number of exclusions that must be disregarded. These
PERG 2.5.6GRP
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
SUP 6.2.2GRP
Under section 20(1) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), a firm is prohibited from carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom (or purporting to do so) otherwise than in accordance with its permission.
SUP 14.1.1GRP
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.1.2GRP
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLL 9.4.2 R and CIS for full details of applicable rules and guidance.2
SUP 14.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive;44(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive .4(1A) 4Similarly, an EEA firm which:(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar
SUP 14.1.4GRP
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. These are known as requisite details, or for firms passporting under the Insurance Directives relevant details.
SUP 14.1.5GRP
This chapter also explains how an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier may cancel its qualification for authorisation under the Act.
SUP 15.3.11RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies); or(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;by (or as regards (c) against) the firm or any of its directors, officers, employees,
SUP 15.3.15RRP
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade
SUP 13A.4.1GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of the EEA Passport Rights Regula
SUP 13A.4.2GRP
Where an EEA firm exercises its EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1A) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 13A.4.3GRP
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include FSArules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.
SUP 13A.4.4GRP
(1) When the FSA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the date on which the FSA received the consent notice.(2) Although the FSA is not required to notify the applicable provisions
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition), the FSA has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body.
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate for the FSA to give a direction
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be satisfiedin the following circumstances:(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act; or(3) the recognised
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying
FEES 5.2.1GRP
Paragraph 9 of Schedule 17 to the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme) requires FOS Ltd to adopt an annual budget which has been approved by the FSA. The annual budget must distinguish between the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction and the Voluntary Jurisdiction.
FEES 5.2.2GRP
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FSA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
FEES 5.2.3GRP
Paragraph 15 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require firms subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction and any other respondents to a complaint to pay specified fees to it in respect of complaints closed by the Financial Ombudsman Service.
FEES 5.2.5GRP
Paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require VJ participants to pay to it such amounts at such times as it specifies in the standard terms.
FEES 5.2.6GRP
The relevant provisions of the rules in FEES 5 and FEES 2 will be applied to VJ participants through the standard terms made by FOS Ltd under paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act (see DISP 4).
PERG 9.3.1GRP
For a body corporate to be an open-ended investment company, as defined in section 236(1) of the Act:(1) it must be a collective investment scheme;(2) it must satisfy the property condition in section 236(2); and(3) it must satisfy the investment condition in section 236(3).
PERG 9.3.2GRP
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FSA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
PERG 9.3.5GRP
The FSA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
PERG 9.3.6GRP
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FSA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
PERG 9.10.1GRP
A number of controls apply under the Act to the promotion of shares or securities that are issued by any body corporate. These controls differ according to whether the person making the promotion is an unauthorised person (see PERG 9.10.2 G) or an authorised person (see PERG 9.10.3 G to PERG 9.10.6 G). In addition, where a body corporate is not an open-ended investment company:(1) the requirements of Prospectus Rules relating to the publication of an approved prospectus may1 apply
PERG 9.10.2GRP
The controls under the Act that apply to promotions of shares or securities by unauthorised persons are in section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). These controls apply where an unauthorised person makes a financial promotion in, or from, the United Kingdom that relates to the shares in or securities of any body corporate. The same controls apply regardless of whether the shares or securities being promoted are issued by a body corporate that is an open-ended
PERG 9.10.3GRP
Promotions made by authorised persons in the United Kingdom are generally subject to the controls in COB 3 (Financial Promotion). However, in the case of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate which is an open-ended investment company, additional controls are imposed by Chapter II of Part XVII of the Act (Restrictions on promotion of collective investment schemes) (see PERG 8.20). Section 238 of the Act (Restrictions on promotion) prevents an authorised person communicating
PERG 9.10.5GRP
There are a number of other exemptions in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Promotion of Collective Investment Schemes) (Exemptions) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1060). In general terms, these exemptions are equivalent to the exemptions from section 21 of the Act that apply to units. There is guidance on those exemptions in PERG 8.20.3 G (Additional restriction on the promotion of collective investment schemes).
PERG 9.10.10GRP
A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted by an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself. But where the open-ended investment company is incorporated outside the United Kingdom, it will
SUP 13A.1.1GRP
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm that wishes to exercise rights
SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act and should refer to AUTH 3 (Applications for Part IV permission)); or (2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:(a) by the provision of services; and(b) pursuant to a community
SUP 13A.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive.2(1A) Similarly, an EEA firm which:2(a) has satisfied the
SUP 13A.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
SUP 13A.1.5GRP
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act after it has received a consent notice or been notified of an EEA firm's intentions by its Home State regulator. So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. (2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the
GEN 2.2.3RRP
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 149(Evidential provisions); and(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
GEN 2.2.4GRP
(1) The rules to which section 149of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them. These code provisions are GEN 2.1.4 E, and those provisions in the Code of Practice for Approved Persons (APER 3 and APER
GEN 2.2.12GRP
The application of the Interpretation Act 1978 to the Handbook has the effect, in particular, that:(1) expressions in the Handbook used in the Act have the meanings which they bear in the Act, unless the contrary intention appears;(2) where reference is made in the Handbook to an enactment, it is a reference to that enactment as amended and includes a reference to that provision as extended or applied by or under any other enactment, unless the contrary intention appears; and(3)
GEN 2.2.18RRP
(1) If a firm, which is a partnership7 or unincorporated association, is dissolved, but its authorisation continues to have effect under section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations) in relation to any partnership or unincorporated association7 which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm, the successor partnership or unincorporated association7 is to be regarded as the same firm for the purposes of the Handbook unless the context otherwise requires7.77(2)
GEN 2.2.19GRP
In principle, it is possible to view a change of partners7 in a partnership7, or a change in the membership of the unincorporated association, as the formation of a new partnership7 or association. GEN 2.2.18 R reflects section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations), which provides for the continuing authorisation of partnerships7 and unincorporated associations following a change in partners7 or members if certain conditions are satisfied. In particular,
SUP 3.6.3GRP
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R: (1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
SUP 3.6.5GRP
Section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required under the Act to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items, is relevant to SUP 3.6.1 R and SUP 3.6.3 G.
SUP 3.6.6GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5 R (3)).
SUP 3.6.7GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.
SUP 3.6.9GRP
Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.
PERG 9.4.1GRP
The first element of the definition is that open-ended investment companies are a corporate form of collective investment scheme. This means that they must have the features in section 235 of the Act.
PERG 9.4.2GRP
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
PERG 9.4.4GRP
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
PERG 9.4.5GRP
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
PERG 9.4.6GRP
In the FSA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
SUP 13.4.2GRP
A UK firm cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).The conditions are that:(1) the
SUP 13.4.4GRP
If a UK firm has given the FSA a notice of intention in the required form, then:(1) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State Regulator within one month of receipt; or(2) (a) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from theInsurance Directives, paragraph 20(3A) of
SUP 13.4.5GRP
When the FSA sends a copy of a notice of intention, or if it gives a consent notice to the Host State regulator, it must inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so (paragraphs 20 (3B)(b) and (4) of Schedule 3 to the Act).4
SUP 14.6.1GRP
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 19of the Banking
SUP 14.6.2GRP
In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.6.9GRP
Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 Gand CIS 17.4.8 G (Revocation of recognition: Schemes recognised under section 264 of the Act).1