Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1

1 - 20 of 62 items.

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in AUTH 3.18 and, for insurers, AUTH 3.12.
SUP 6.3.4GRP
In determining the activities and specified investments for which a Part IV permission is required, and whether to apply for a variation of that permission, a firm may need to take professional advice and may also wish to discuss this with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.
SUP 6.3.6GRP
If a firm is seeking a variation of Part IV permission to add categories of regulated activities, it should be mindful of the directive requirements referred to at SUP 6.3.42 G relating to the need to commence new activities within 12 months.
SUP 6.3.7GRP
If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that activity. If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity in relation to any specified investment, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that specified investment from the relevant activity.
SUP 6.3.8GRP
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part IV permission which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:(a) make an application to the FSA for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application to the FSA for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, Form A (Application); seeSUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5 G; (b) notify
SUP 6.3.9GRP
A variation of Part IV permission may, in some cases, lead to a change in a firm's prudential category or sub-category (see SUP App 1). For example, an investment management firm which varies its Part IV permission to include accepting deposits and as a result meets the definition of a bank, would move to the prudential category for a bank (see SUP App 1.3.1 G).
SUP 6.3.11GRP
A firm with Part IV permission to carry on insurance business, which is applying for a variation of its Part IV permission to add further insurance activities or specified investments, will be required to submit particular information on its existing activities as part of its application. This includes the scheme of operations which is required to be submitted as part of the application pack (for further details on the scheme of operations, see SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme of
SUP 6.3.12GRP
In applying to vary its Part IV permission to add categories of specified investments, in relation to insurance business, a firm carrying on insurance business will need to determine the classes of specified investments relating to effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission will be necessary, having regard to whether certain classes of contract may qualify to be effected or carried out on an ancillary or supplementary basis (see
SUP 6.3.13GRP
The application for variation of Part IV permission will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FSA that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold
SUP 6.3.16GRP
(1) Section 51(2) of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part IV permission must contain a statement:(a) of the desired variation; and(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.(2) The full form and content of the application for variation of Part IV permission is a matter for direction by the FSA, who will determine the additional information and documentation
SUP 6.3.17GRP
(1) [deleted]7(2) A firm is advised to discuss its application with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA before submission, particularly if it is seeking a variation of permission within a short timescale. A firm is also advised to include as much detail as possible (including any additional information identified by its supervisors at this stage) with its application.7
SUP 6.3.19GRP
A firm which is making an application for variation of Part IV permission to wind down (run off) its business before applying for a cancellation of that permission (see SUP 6.2.9 G) should read SUP 6 Annex 4 for details of the additional procedures that apply.
SUP 6.3.20GRP
In certain cases, FSA may consider that granting an application for variation of Part IV permission which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a requirement or limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the FSA may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see AUTH 3), as directed by the FSA. Applications for variation involving significant changes may be processed
SUP 6.3.22GRP
The fees payable for a firm applying for a variation of its part IV permission are set out in FEES 3.8
SUP 6.3.28GRP
(1) The FSA is required by section 41(2) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to vary its Part IV permission satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part IV permission after the variation. However, the FSA's duty under the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to secure its
SUP 6.3.31GRP
In considering whether to grant a firm's application to vary its Part IV permission, the FSA will also have regard, under section 49(1) of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person6 appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant (see AUTH 3.9.22 G to AUTH 3.9.24 G (Connected persons)). The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the FSA is exercising its functions under Part IV of
SUP 6.3.34GRP
If limitations or requirements are varied or imposed by the FSA which were not included in the firm's application for variation of Part IV permission, the FSA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.39GRP
A decision to grant an application for variation of Part IV permission, as applied for, will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. However, if the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for variation of Part IV permission be either refused or granted subject to limitations or requirements or a narrower description of regulated activities than applied for, the decision will be taken by either the RDC or executive procedures.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEC gives guidance on the FSA's decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part IV permission either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FSA but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).
SUP 6.3.41GRP
If the variation of Part IV permission is given, the FSA will expect a firm to commence a new regulated activity in accordance with its business plan (revised as necessary to take account of changes during the application process) or scheme of operations for an insurer. Firms should take this into consideration when determining when to make an application to the FSA.
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period of at least 12 months (irrespective of the date of grant). (2) If the FSA considers that such a variation or cancellation
SUP 6.3.43GRP
When a firm commences new regulated activities following a variation of a Part IV permission, it should have particular regard to the requirements of Principle 11 (Relations with regulators) (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(c)).
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:

1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or

2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.
SUP 6.2.6GRP
A firm which is seeking to: (1) vary its Part IV permission substantially; or(2) cancel its Part IV permission;should discuss its plans with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA as early as possible before making an application, in order to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G (Notifications to the FSA)). These discussions will help the FSA and the firm to agree the correct approach for the firm.
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the FSA to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the FSA before applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.9GRP
If an insureror a bank wishes to cease carrying on all regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually be necessary to wind down the business over a long term period which is normally more than six months. This may also be the case for a firm holding client money or customer assets. In these circumstances, it will usually be appropriate for the firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission before commencing the wind-down. A firm should only make
SUP 6.2.10GRP
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss its circumstances. The FSA will discuss the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel its Part IV permission. Following these discussions, an application for variation or cancellation of Part IV permission, as appropriate, should usually be made by the firm, although, in certain circumstances, the FSA may use its own-initiative
SUP 6.2.11GRP
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part IV permission before it applies for cancellation of Part IV permission to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months of more. It will apply to most insurers and banks and, in some
SUP 6.2.12GRP
A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part IV permission on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. A variation of Part IV permission may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.
SUP 6.2.13GRP
A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission, wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.
SUP 6.4.3GRP
(1) A firm may apply to the FSA to cancel its Part IV permission before it has ceased carrying on all regulated activities. However, where a firm makes a formal application for cancellation of its permission when it has not yet ceased carrying on regulated activities, the FSA will expect the firm:(a) to cease those regulated activities within the short term (normally no more than six months from the date of application for cancellation); and(b) to have formal plans to cease its
SUP 6.4.4GRP
Additional guidance for a firm carrying on insurance business, accepting deposits or which holds client money or customer's assets is given in SUP 6 Annex 4. As noted in SUP 6.2.9 G, it will usually be appropriate for a firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission while winding down (running off) its regulated activities and before applying to cancel its Part IV permission.
SUP 6.4.5DRP
(1) If a firm wishes to cancel its Part IV permission, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 (Cancellation of permission application form).2(2) A firm's application for cancellation of Part IV permission must be:(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Cancellations 4Team at the FSA; and4(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5 R (Form and method of notification).(3) [deleted]2(4) Until the application has
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part IV permission in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.4 Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.4(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: Cancellations4 Team:4(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial ServicesAuthority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or(b) email cancellation.team@fsa.gov.uk(3)
SUP 6.4.7GRP
When an 4application is received4, the FSA4 will send the firm a written acknowledgement. The firm will be required to provide information which, in the opinion of the FSA, is necessary for it to determine whether to grant or refuse the application for cancellation of Part IV permission. The Cancellations4Team will work with the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA during this process.4444
SUP 6.4.8GRP
The information which the FSA may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the FSA may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part IV permission to carry on.
SUP 6.4.12GRP
The FSA will usually require the report in SUP 6.4.9 G to be signed by a director or other officer with authority to bind the firm. It may include confirmations from the firm that, in relation to business carried on under its Part IV permission, it has:(1) ceased carrying on all regulated activities;(2) properly disbursed funds in its client bank accounts and closed those accounts;(3) discharged all insurance or deposit liabilities; and(4) properly transferred all investments,
SUP 6.4.18GRP
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
SUP 6.4.19GRP
The FSA will usually not cancel a firm's Part IV permission until the firm can demonstrate that, in relation to business carried on under that permission, it has, as appropriate:(1) ceased carrying on regulated activities or fully run off or transferred all insurance liabilities;(2) repaid all client money and client deposits;(3) discharged custody assets and any other property belonging to clients; and(4) discharged, satisfied or resolved complaints against the firm.
SUP 6.4.21GRP
Before the FSA cancels a firm'sPart IV permission, the firm will be expected to be able to demonstrate that it has ceased or transferred all regulated activities under that permission. For example, the firm may be asked to provide evidence that a transfer of business (including, where relevant, any client money, customer assets or deposits or insurance liabilities) is complete. As noted in SUP 6.4.9 G, the FSA may require the firm to confirm this by providing a report, in a form
SUP 6.4.22GRP
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart IV permission, the FSA will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 4.3.99 R and CASS 5.5.80 R (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty) and CASS 4.3.104 R (Client money: allocated but unclaimed client money) if it has
SUP 6.4.23GRP
If the FSA has granted an application for cancellation of Part IV permission and withdrawn a firm's status as an authorised person (see SUP 6.5) it will retain certain investigative and enforcement powers in relation to the firm as a former authorised person. These include:(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (see ENF 2 (Information gathering and investigation powers));(2) powers to apply to court
SUP 6.4.28GRP
A decision to grant an application for cancellation of permission will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. Where, however, the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for cancellation of Part IV permission be refused, the decision will be taken by the RDC if the applicant makes representations to the FSA. If there are no representations, the decision will be made under executive procedures.33
PERG 2.8.2GRP
Only one exclusion applies to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. Adeposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. In addition to the situations that are excluded from being 'deposits' (see PERG 2.6.2 G to PERG 2.6.4 G), several persons are exempt persons in relation to the regulated activity of accepting deposits (see PERG 2.10.8G (2)).
PERG 2.8.3GRP
The following activities are excluded from both the regulated activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance.(1) In specified circumstances, the activities of an EEA firm when participating in a Community co-insurance operation are excluded. A Community co-insurance operation is defined in the Community Co-insurance Directive.(2) In specified circumstances, activities that are carried out in connection with the provision of on-the-spot accident or breakdown assistance
PERG 2.8.4GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any contractually based investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such contracts). The activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) Of particular significance is the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc). This applies where dealing in investments as principal
PERG 2.8.5GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as agent applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any relevant investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such rights). In addition, the activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) An exclusion applies to certain transactions entered into by an agent who is not an authorised person which depend on him dealing with (or through) an authorised person. It does
PERG 2.8.6AGRP
2The exclusions referred to in PERG 2.8.6G (4) and PERG 2.8.6G (13)(c), (d), (e) and (l) will not be available to persons who, in carrying on an arranging activity, are investment firms (see PERG 2.5.4 G (Investment services and activities)).
PERG 2.8.7GRP
The activities of persons appointed under a power of attorney are excluded under article 38 of the Regulated Activities Order, from the regulated activity of managing investments, if specified conditions are satisfied. The exclusion only applies where a person is not carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation and is subject to further limitations discussed below2. In addition, the following exclusions (outlined in PERG 2.9) apply in specified circumstances where
PERG 2.8.7BGRP
The following exclusions from assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance also apply to a person in specified circumstances:(1) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G); or(2) in connection with the carrying on of a profession or of a business not otherwise consisting of regulated activities (see PERG 2.9.5 G); or(3) as an incoming ECA provider (see PERG 2.9.18 G); or(4) as a provider of non-motor goods or services related
PERG 2.8.8GRP
The exclusions from the regulated activity of safeguarding and administering investments are as follows.(1) Safeguarding and administration activities carried on by one person are excluded if a specified third party undertakes a responsibility for the assets which is no less onerous than it would have been if he were doing the safeguarding and administration himself. The effect of this is that an authorised person with permission to carry on this regulated activity (or in certain
PERG 2.8.9GRP
Exclusions from the regulated activity of sending dematerialised instructions apply in relation to certain types of instructions sent in the operation of the system maintained under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3755). The various exclusions relate to the roles played by participating issuers, settlement banks and network providers (such as Internet service providers) and to instructions sent in connection with takeover offers (as long as specified conditions
PERG 2.8.10GRP
There are two1 exclusions1 from the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to collective investment schemes. These exclusions relate 1to incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G) and to business angel-led enterprise capital funds (see PERG 2.9.20 G)1. In other cases, the key issue is whether or not what is being done relates to something that is a collective investment scheme. Exclusions exist in relation to that issue (see PERG 2.6.18 G).11
PERG 2.8.11GRP
The only exclusion from the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to stakeholder pension schemes relates to incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G).
PERG 2.8.13GRP
Electronic commerce activities provided by an incoming ECA provider are excluded from the regulated activities that relate expressly to business carried on at Lloyds (see PERG 2.9.18 G). Otherwise the only exclusions that apply concern the regulated activity of arranging deals in its application to business carried on at Lloyd's.
PERG 2.8.14GRP
Entering as provider into afuneral plan contract is not treated as a regulated activity where:(1) the contract is one under which the sums received from the customer will be applied towards a contract of insurance on the life of the person whose funeral is to be provided or be held on trust for the purpose of providing a funeral; in each case certain specified conditions must be met for the exclusion to apply; or(2) the customer and the provider intend or expect that the funeral
SUP 6.5.1GRP
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation by the FSA), if the FSA cancels a firm's Part IV permission, and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the FSA is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.
FEES 3.2.2GRP
If an application for a Part IV permission (or exercise of a Treaty right) falls within more than one category set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, only one fee is payable. That fee is the one for the category to which the highest fee tariff applies.
FEES 3.2.3RRP
(1) Unless (2) applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.(2) FSA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

(o) A firm applying for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either)1 in connection with rules (or future rules)1 implementing the revised Basel Capital Accord (including any amendments)

11

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

1

On or before the date the application is made

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made
SUP 6.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to every firm with a Part IV permission which wishes to:(1) vary its Part IV permission; or(2) cancel its Part IV permission and end its authorisation.
SUP 6.1.4GRP
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with Part IV permission can apply to the FSA to vary that permission;(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the FSA to cancel that permission completely; (3) the additional procedures that apply to a firm carrying on regulated activities which create long term obligations to
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the FSA's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part IV permission has been cancelled at the firm's request. It does not, however, cover the FSA's use of its own-initiative powers to vary or cancel a firm's Part IV permission (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and ENF 5 (Cancellation of Part IV permission on the FSA's own initiative and withdrawal of authorisation)).
SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission. (See AUTH 3.6 and AUTH 3.7 for a further explanation of potential limitations and requirements on a firm's permission.)
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
SUP 7.2.6GRP
A firm has a right of referral to the Financial Services and Markets Tribunal (see DEC 5) in respect of the exercise by the FSA of its powers to vary, on its own initiative, the firm'sPart IV permission.
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part IVpermission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).
PERG 5.12.11GRP
UK-based persons must obtain Part IV permission in relation to their insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom as one of the following:(1) a body corporate whose registered office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(2) a partnership or unincorporated association whose head office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(3) an individual (that is, a sole trader) whose residence is situated in the United Kingdom.The United Kingdom will, in each case, be the Home State
PERG 5.12.12GRP
Non-UK-based persons wishing to carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom must:(1) qualify for authorisation by exercising passport rights (see section 31 (Authorised persons) and schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) to the Act and PERG 5.12.13 G to PERG 5.12.14 G (Passporting)); or(2) make use of the overseas persons exclusion (which then has the effect that activities are deemed not to be regulated activities carried on in the United Kingdom); or(3) seek Part
PERG 5.12.14GRP
On the other hand, non-EEA-based insurance intermediaries wishing to establish a branch in the UK for the purpose of carrying on insurance mediation activities may only do so with Part IV permission.
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,10 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Note 1)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank or building society which in either case carries on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank or building society which in either case does not carry on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5B)

ELMI

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm (Note 3) which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

9

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

9(7A)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), or securities and futures firm not within (7) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

9(7B)

UCITS management company

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Mortgage lender8 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which CASS 5 (Client money and mandates) (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Mortgage intermediary or mortgage administrator which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 = In row (2):

(a) CASS 2 (Client assets) is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguarding and administering investments in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguarding and administering investments in relation to bonded investments;

(b) CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client;

but, if CASS 2 or CASS 4 is treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of CASS 2 or CASS 4.

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general: core investment services by investment firms).

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567
SUP 3.1.3RRP
This chapter does not applyto an incoming EEA firm without atop-up permission or an auditor of such a firm.
SUP 3.1.4GRP
The application of SUP 3.10 to the auditor of an incoming EEA firm with a top-up permission is qualified in SUP 3.10.3 R.
SUP 3.1.5RRP
This chapter does not apply to an incoming Treaty firm, which:(1) does not have a top-up permission; and(2) is not required to comply with the client asset rules.
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see AUTH 3). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included
SUP 13A.7.2GRP
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see AUTH 3 (Applications for Part IV permission). If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).
FEES 3.1.6GRP
Applications for Part IV permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) are categorised by the FSA for the purpose of fee raising as complex, moderately complex and straightforward as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the FSA's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).
FEES 3.1.7GRP
A potential applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the FSA before submitting it formally (see AUTH 3.9.1 G). If an applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) does so, the FSA will be able to use that dialogue to make an initial assessment of the fee categorisation and therefore indicate the authorisation fee that should be paid.
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
SUP 14.5.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm has been granted top-up permission by the FSA and wishes to vary that permission, the Act requires it to apply to the FSA for a variation of the top-up permission. 1
SUP 14.5.2GRP
Guidance on the procedures for applying for a variation of a permission granted under Part IV of the Act, including a top-up permission, is given in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).1
SUP 7.1.2GRP
The application of this chapter to an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier with a Part IV permission (a "top-up permission") is limited as explained in SUP 7.2.4 G.
PERG 5.13.1GRP
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
PERG 5.13.2GRP
A person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).
PERG 5.13.6GRP
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
PERG 5.11.1GRP
This part of the guidance deals with:(1) exclusions which are disapplied where the regulated activity relates to contracts of insurance;(2) exclusions which are disapplied where a person carries on insurance mediation; and(3) the following exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity:(a) activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business (article 67 (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business));(b) activities
PERG 5.11.4GRP
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G on 14 January 2005 have the following effects.(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles
SUP 12.6.6RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act; and(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the appointed representative's other business:(a) which is performed as an appointed representative of another firm; or(b) which:(i)
SUP 12.6.8GRP
(1) Some of the controlled functions, as set out in SUP 10.4.1 R, apply to an appointed representative of a firm, other than an introducer appointed representative, just as they apply to a firm (see SUP 10.1.16 R). These are the governing functions and the customer functions (other than the investment management function) such as, for example, CF 21, the investment adviser function. As explained in SUP 10.1.16A R, SUP 10.1.17G (3) and SUP 10.3.2 G respectively:2(a) the effect
FEES 1.1.1GRP
151FEES applies to all persons required to pay a fee or levy under a provision of the Handbook. The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom the rules and guidance in FEES apply. FEES 2 (General Provisions) contains general provisions which may apply to any type of fee payer. FEES 3 (Application, Notification and Vetting Fees) covers one-off fees payable on a particular event for example various application fees (including those in relation to authorisation, variation of
FEES 1.1.2RRP
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to:(a) every applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission);(b) every Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right; (c) every applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;(d) every