Related provisions for MCOB 5.4.20

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LR 18.3.2RRP
In addition to the documents set out in LR 3.4.4 R that must be submitted to the FSA before midday two business days prior to the consideration of the application for admission, either of the following documents must be submitted at the same time:(1) a copy of the executed deposit agreement; or(2) a final draft of the deposit agreement together with confirmation from the issuer that a copy of the executed deposit agreement will be submitted to the FSA as soon as possible after
PERG 6.5.4GRP
The FSA will apply the following principles of construction to determine whether a contract is a contract of insurance.(1) In applying the description in PERG 6.3.4 G, more weight attaches to the substance of the contract, than to the form of the contract. The form of the contract is relevant (see PERG 6.6.8 G (3) and (4)) but not decisive of whether a contract is a contract of insurance: Fuji Finance Inc. v. Aetna Life Insurance Co. Ltd [1997] Ch. 173 (C.A.).(2) In particular,
SUP 16.8.23RRP
1A firm must make and retain such records as will enable it to:(1) monitor regularly the persistency of life policies and stakeholder pensions effected through each of its representatives; and (2) make persistency reports or data reports to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.8.3R.
SUP 16.8.24GRP
1In order to comply with SUP 16.8.23 R, a firm will as a minimum need to make and retain separate records for:(1) life policies and stakeholder pensions originally promoted: (a) by representatives; or(b) by independent intermediaries; or(c) through the firm's own direct offer financial promotions; or(d) as adopted packaged products;(2) life policies and stakeholder pensions not within (1), including those effected as execution-only transactions,for inclusion in the relevant form
COLL 7.3.6RRP
(1) Winding up or termination must commence once the conditions referred to in COLL 7.3.4 R (3) are both satisfied or, if later, once the events in COLL 7.3.4 R (4) have occurred. (2) Once winding up or termination has commenced: (a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ICVC or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund; (b) the ICVC must cease to issue and cancel units;(c) the
COLL 7.3.7RRP
(1) Paragraphs (2) to (9) of this rule apply to winding up an ICVC and termination of a sub-fund, paragraph (10) only applies to the winding up of an ICVC and paragraphs (11) to (15) only apply to the termination of a sub-fund of an ICVC.(2) The ACD must, as soon as practicable after winding up or termination has commenced, cause the scheme property to be realised and the liabilities of the ICVC or the sub-fund to be met out of the proceeds.(3) The ACD must instruct the depositary
COLL 4.5.10RRP
The comparative table required by COLL 4.5.7R (1)(c) (Contents of the annual long report) must set out:(1) a performance record over the last five calendar years, or if the authorised fund has not been in existence during the whole of that period, over the whole period in which it has been in existence, showing:(a) the highest and the lowest price of a unit of each class in issue during each of those years; and(b) the net income distributed (or, for accumulation units, allocated)
COLL 4.5.12RRP
The authorised fund manager must ensure that the report of the auditor to the unitholders must include a statement:(1) whether, in the auditor's opinion, the accounts have been properly prepared in accordance with the IMA SORP, the rules in this sourcebook, and the instrument constituting the scheme;(2) whether, in the auditor's opinion, the accounts give a true and fair view of the net incomeand the net gains or losses ofthe scheme property of the authorised fund (or, as the
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

COLL 8.4.5RRP
A qualified investor scheme may invest in units in a scheme (a second scheme) only if the second scheme is:(1) a regulated collective investment scheme; or(2) a scheme not within (1) where the authorised fund manager has taken reasonable care to determine that:(a) it is the subject of an independent annual audit conducted in accordance with international accounting standards;(b) it has its value verified by a person independent from its operator in relation to each day on which
LR 13.8.6RRP
(1) A circular containing an offer to shareholders of the right to elect to receive shares instead of all or part of a cash dividend must include:(a) a statement of the total number of shares that would be issued if all eligible shareholders were to elect to receive shares for their entire shareholdings, and the percentage which that number represents of the equity shares (excluding treasury shares) in issue at the date of the circular;(b) in a prominent position, details of the
SUP App 3.9.6GRP

1Activities set out in Article 5(2) and (3) of the UCITS Directive

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 51, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section Bof theAnnex to the ISD.

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

3.

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section Bof theAnnex to the ISD.

Articles 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

4.

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only exercise passport rights under the UCITS Directive (article 2(2)(h) of the ISD). A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table.

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

1.

Investment management.

2.

Administration:

a.

legal and fund management accounting services;

b.

customer inquiries;

c.

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

d.

regulatory compliance monitoring;

e.

maintenance of unit-holder register;

f.

distribution of income;

g.

unit issues and redemptions;

h.

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

i.

record keeping.

3.

Marketing.

DISP 4.2.3RRP
DISP 1.5.1 R contains a requirement for a firm in the Compulsory Jurisdiction to make and retain records of complaints subject to DISP 1.4 - DISP 1.6 for a minimum period of three years from the date of its receipt of a complaint. Although this requirement is not applied to VJ participants, they may need to keep records of complaints for sufficient time to enable them to provide the Ombudsman with necessary information in the event of a complaint being referred to the Financial
LR 10.7.7RRP
When calculating the size of a transaction under LR 10 Annex 1 and LR 10.7.5 R, account must be taken of any associated transactions or loans effected or intended to be effected, and any contingent liabilities or commitments.
PERG 7.6.4GRP
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FSA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FSA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
PRIN 1.2.3GRP
1(1) All firms, except those intending only to provide basic advice on a stakeholder product, are required by COB 4.1.4 R (Requirement to classify) to classify a client before conducting designated investment business with or for him, and that classification will be applicable for the purposes of Principles 6, 7, 8 and 9.1(2) The person to whom a firmprovides basic advice on a stakeholder product will be a private customer for all purposes including the purposes of Principles
REC 2.15.4GRP
In assessing whether the procedures made by a UK recognised body to investigate complaints about the users of its facilities are satisfactory, the FSA may have regard to: (1) whether these procedures include arrangements which enable the UK recognised body to:(a) acknowledge complaints promptly;(b) consider and investigate these complaints objectively, promptly and thoroughly; (c) provide a timely reply to the complainant; and(d) keep adequate records of complaints and investigations;(2)