Related provisions for PERG 6.7.2

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm part way through a financial year of the compensation scheme:(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and(2) the FSCS may make a levy upon it (which may be before or after the firmhas ceased to be a participant firm, but must be before it ceases to be an authorised person) for the costs which it would have been liable to pay had the FSCS made a levy on all participant firms at the time
COLL 7.5.2GRP
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
MCOB 1.2.5GRP
(1) In order for a loan to fall within the definition of a regulated mortgage contract, at least 40% of the total of the land to be given as security must be used as or in connection with a dwelling. Therefore, the variation in approach provided for in MCOB 1.2.3 R(2) can only apply where the loan being used for a business purpose is secured against a property at least 40 per cent of which is used as a dwelling. It cannot apply to a loan secured on property that is used solely
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a).

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

An investment for which different prices are quoted according to whether it is being bought or sold should be valued at its mid-market price. The instrument constituting the scheme should set out the valuation method that will apply where a single price for buying and selling a security is quoted.

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investmenttransactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as stocks are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the fundor the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricingfunction is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricingwhere the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricingis of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
LR 9.8.4RRP
The annual report and accounts must include, where applicable, the following:(1) a statement of the amount of interest capitalised by the group during the period under review with an indication of the amount and treatment of any related tax relief;(2) any information required by LR 9.2.18 R (Publication of unaudited financial information);(3) details of any small related party transaction as required by LR 11.1.10R (2)(c);(4) details of any long-term incentive schemes as required
MCOB 10.4.3GRP
(1) MCOB 10.4.2 R means, for example, that the following charges must be included within the total charge for credit:(a) any fee payable to a mortgage intermediary for arranging the contract (see MCOB 10.4.2 R(2)); and(b) any higher lending charge.(2) The FSA takes the view that charges required to be included within the total charge for credit should not be excluded on the basis of these charges being refundable in certain circumstances. (3) The FSA also takes the view that the
PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.

annual information update

the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R.

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.

CARD

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.

CESR recommendations

the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that the FSA proposes to follow in the circumstances specified in DEC 4.1.6 G (Decisions to be taken by executive procedures), and that are described in DEC 4.3 (Executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions).

FSA

the Financial Services Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

Investment Services Directive

the Council Directive of 10 May 1993 on investment services in the securities field (No 93/22/EEC).

ISD

Investment Services Directive.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) :

(a)

any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R;

(c)

An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.

register

register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act.

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.

regulated market

(a)

(as defined in article 1 of the ISD) a market for the instruments listed in Section B of the Annex to the ISD which:

  • (i) appears on the list of such markets drawn up by the market's Home State as required by article 16 of the ISD;
  • (ii) functions regularly;
  • (iii) is characterised by the fact that regulations issued or approved by the competent authorities define the conditions for the operation of the market, the conditions for access to the market and, where Directive 79/279/EEC is applicable, the conditions governing admission to listing imposed in that Directive and, where that Directive is not applicable, the conditions that must be satisfied by a financial instrument before it can effectively be dealt in on the market; and
  • (iv)requires compliance with all the reporting and transparency requirements laid down by articles 20 and 21 of the ISD; and

(b)

a market notified under article 16 of the ISD, as included in point 30b of Annex IX to the Agreement of the European Economic Area, to the Standing Committee of the EFTA States as defined in that agreement.

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FSA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of the investment services directive, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.
MCOB 9.5.4RRP
The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R(1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 9.4, with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate) at the date the illustration is issued;(2)