Related provisions for SUP 11.4.1

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PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom.Registered EEA-based insurance intermediaries
SUP 3.3.2RRP
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 3.1) must:(1) appoint an auditor;(2) notify the FSA, without delay, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 2R (Standing data form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;2(3) appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor which has arisen; (4) ensure that the replacement auditor can take up office at the
GEN 1.3.2RRP
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.

Firm receives permission; or Firm extends permission

Any firm which reports its reportable transactions to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR).

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Issuer (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

Sponsors

10,00010

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

Activities set out in Annex I of the BCD1

1

Table 1: BCD activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Acceptance of deposits and other repayable funds from the public

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

 1 1

Note 1. The BCD activity of trading for account of customers does not extend to the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order unless the arrangements bring about or would bring about particular transactions.

REC 3.14.11RRP
Where a UK recognised body proposes to change its normal hours of operation, it must give the FSA notice of that proposal, and particulars of, and the reasons for, the actions proposed, at the same time as the proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders, or any group or class of them.
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the FSA to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the FSA before applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission.
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
DTR 3.1.1GRP
1This chapter sets out the notification obligations of issuers, persons discharging managerial responsibilities and their connected persons in respect of transactions conducted on their own account in shares of the issuer, or derivatives or any other financial instrument relating to those shares.
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A UK insurance intermediary3

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21
FEES 1.1.2RRP
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to:(a) every applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission);(b) every Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right; (c) every applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;(d) every
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
LR 16.4.3RRP
In addition to the definition in LR 11.1.4 R a related party includes any investment manager of the venture capital trust.
COLL 8.6.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is good and sufficient reason in the interests of unitholders or potential unitholders and the authorised fund manager
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the applicable provisions (if any) within
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a).

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

An investment for which different prices are quoted according to whether it is being bought or sold should be valued at its mid-market price. The instrument constituting the scheme should set out the valuation method that will apply where a single price for buying and selling a security is quoted.

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investmenttransactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as stocks are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the fundor the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricingfunction is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricingwhere the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricingis of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.