Related provisions for LR 14.3.3

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SUP 12.5.5RRP
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
SUP 12.5.6GRP
(1) If the appointed representative is appointed to give advice on investments to private customers concerning packaged products, the firm should also satisfy itself that:(a) the contract requires compliance with the rules in COB 5.1 (Advising of packaged products)3; and(b) if the firm is a provider firm, the contract prevents the appointed representative from giving advice on investments to a private customer concerning the purchase of a packaged product which is not issued by
COLL 7.3.1GRP
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject to the conditions set
COLL 7.3.11RRP
(1) Except to the extent that the ACD can show that it has complied with COLL 7.3.9 R (Duty to ascertain liabilities), the ACD:(a) is personally liable to meet any liability of an ICVC, of which it is the ACD, wound up under this section (whether or not the ICVC has been dissolved); and(b) must keep the ICVC indemnified against any liability allocated or attributable to a sub-fund that has been terminated under these rulesthat was not discharged before the completion of the winding
PR 3.1.7UKRP

Section 87A(1) of the Act provides for the approval of a prospectus by the FSA:

(1)

The [FSA] may not approve a prospectus unless it is satisfied that:

(a)

the United Kingdom is the home State in relation to the issuer of the transferable securities to which it relates,

(b)

the prospectus contains the necessary information, and

(c)

all of the other requirements imposed by or in accordance with this Part or the prospectus directive have been complied with (so far as those requirements apply to a prospectus for the transferable securities in question).

PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
REC 2.2.4GRP
If a UK recognised body makes arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by persons who are authorised persons or recognised bodies, this does not alter its obligations under Regulation 6.
COLL 9.3.3RRP
(1) An operator of a scheme which is a recognised scheme by virtue of section 270 or 272 of the Act must comply, subject to paragraph (2) below, with the requirements set out in COLL 4.2 (Pre-sale notifications). (2) Where a scheme recognised under section 270of the Act is managed and authorised in Guernsey, Jersey, or the Isle of Man, the prospectus need not comply with the requirements of COLL 4.2.5 R (Table: contents of prospectus), providing it contains corresponding matter
SUP 3.2.2GRP
The Act, together with other legislation such as the Companies Acts 1985 and 1989, the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992, provides the statutory framework for firms' and auditors' obligations.
REC 2.14.5GRP
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FSA may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. (2) In the FSA's view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.(3) In the FSA's view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FSA that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see ENF 17 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)1. A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).1
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirements;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] or [ROCH];

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the [FSA] by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the [FSA] and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the [FSA] is to have regard to-

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.1

LR 16.4.1RRP
LR 10 (significant transactions) applies to venture capital trusts except for transactions which fall within the stated investment policies of the venture capital trust.
COLL 9.4.3RRP
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person where: (a) information in English can be obtained about prices of units in the scheme; and(b) a participant may redeem or arrange for redemption of units in the scheme and obtain payment. (2) An operator is treated as complying with paragraph (1) if it ensures participants may sell their units on an investment exchange at a price not significantly different from net asset value; and if so, must inform
MCOB 5.4.6GRP
It is the responsibility of a mortgage intermediary to ensure compliance with MCOB 5.4.3 R. However, where a firm can show that it was reasonable for it to rely on information provided to it by another person, other than the mortgage lender, that an illustration was within the tolerances described in MCOB 5.4.3 R, he may be able to rely on MCOB 2.5.2 R, if this turns out not to be the case.
LR 17.3.9RRP
An issuer that is not already required to comply with DTR 2 must comply with DTR 2 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure rules and transparency rules.
REC 2.4.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
MCOB 5.5.7RRP
The firm dealing directly with the customer is responsible for ensuring compliance with the content and timing requirements, that is, a mortgage lender is not responsible for ensuring that a customer has received an illustration before accepting an application from a mortgage intermediary.
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a).

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

An investment for which different prices are quoted according to whether it is being bought or sold should be valued at its mid-market price. The instrument constituting the scheme should set out the valuation method that will apply where a single price for buying and selling a security is quoted.

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investmenttransactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as stocks are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the fundor the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricingfunction is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricingwhere the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricingis of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.