Related provisions for SUP App 2.7.2
21 - 40 of 88 items.
Threshold condition 2(1) and (2) (Location of offices), implement the requirements of article 6 of the Post BCCI Directive and threshold condition 2(3) and (4) implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive, although the Act extends threshold condition 2 to firms which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and the UCITS Directive.1
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
Applicable sections
(1) |
Category of firm |
(2) Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A long-term insurer, other than: |
||
(a) |
a registered friendly society which is a non-directive friendly society; |
||
(b) |
an incorporated friendly society that is a flat rate benefits business friendly society; and |
||
(c) |
|||
(2) |
A friendly society, other than a friendly society within (1). |
||
(3) 2 |
A Lloyd's managing agent, in respect of each syndicate it manages2 |
||
(4) 2 |
|||
If the FSA gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to FSA enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); and(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach of the condition, and those activities,
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The FSA will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the FSA if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.
Once the FSA has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the FSA to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the FSAwishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10 G.
Section 340 of the Act gives the FSA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the FSA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification to the FSA of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the FSA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The FSA's rule-making powers under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. The principal duty of an actuary appointed to perform these functions3 is to advise the firm (see SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G3 for the rights and duties of such an actuary3).333333
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.
Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading
a client about the risks of
an investment;(3) misleading
a client about the charges or
surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading
a client about the likely performance
of investment products by providing
inappropriate projections of
future investment returns;(5) misleading
a client by informing him that
products require only a single
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FSA;of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm part way through a financial year of the compensation scheme:(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and(2) the FSCS may make a levy upon it (which may be before or after the firmhas ceased to be a participant firm, but must be before it ceases to be an authorised person) for the costs which it would have been liable to pay had the FSCS made a levy on all participant firms at the time
An EEA firm that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification of the applicable provisions may wish to contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13A.8.1G (2)).
This chapter also outlines the FSA's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part IV permission has been cancelled at the firm's request. It does not, however, cover the FSA's use of its own-initiative powers to vary or cancel a firm's Part IV permission (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and ENF 5 (Cancellation of Part IV permission on the FSA's own initiative and withdrawal of authorisation)).
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see AUTH 3). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see AUTH 3 (Applications for Part IV permission). If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).