Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
161 - 180 of 313 items.
(1) The FSA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under section 256 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FSA receives such requests
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
An insurance undertaking that effects contracts of insurance covering risks or commitments situated in another EEA State should comply with the notification procedures for the provision of services within that EEA State. The location of risks and commitments is found by reference to the rules set out in paragraph 6 of schedule 12 to the Act, which derive from article 1 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 2 of the Second Non-Life Directive. It may be appropriate for
The FSA is of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State, the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the exchange's prices in its UK office does not mean that it is dealing within the territory of the Home State of the regulated market.
Another consequence of a breach of section 21 of the Act is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications)). This applies to agreements entered into by a person as a customer as a consequence of a communication made in breach of section 21.
(1) Recognised bodies are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).(2) UK recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. Overseas recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements laid down in section 292 of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas
PRIN also applies with respect to the communication and approval of financial promotions which:(1) if communicated by an unauthorised person without approval would contravene section 21(1) of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion); and(2) may be communicated by a firm without contravening section 238(1) of the Act (Restrictions on promotion of collective investment schemes).
The firm's commitments
to training and competence should be that:(1) its employees are
competent;(2) its employees remain
competent for the work they do;(3) its employees are
appropriately supervised;(4) its employees' competence
is regularly reviewed; and(5) the level of competence is appropriate
to the nature of the business.
Persons who may be carrying on the activity of advising on investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments will only require authorisation or exemption if they are carrying on those activities by way of business. This is the effect of section 22(1) of the Act. Under section 419 of the Act, the Treasury has the power, by order, to require activities which would otherwise be treated as carried on by way of business to be treated as not carried on by
If the FSA gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to FSA enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); and(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach of the condition, and those activities,
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FSA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FSA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act (Guidance). It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections
(1) Although MCOB does not apply directly to a firm's appointed representatives, a firm will always be responsible for the acts and omissions of its appointed representatives in carrying on business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act). In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision of MCOB, anything done or omitted by a firm's appointed representative (when acting as such) will be treated as having been done or omitted by the