Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11
41 - 60 of 474 items.
Where a sponsor has been appointed under LR 8.2 by a listed company or an applicant, a sponsor must:(1) provide assurance to the FSA when required that the responsibilities of the listed company or applicant under the listing rules have been met; and(2) guide the listed company or applicant in understanding and meeting its responsibilities under the listing rules anddisclosure rules and transparency rules.
A sponsor will be the main point of contact with the FSA for any matter where the sponsor has been appointed by a listed company or applicant. The FSA expects to discuss all issues relating to a transaction and any draft or final document directly with the sponsor. However, in appropriate circumstances, the FSA will communicate directly with the listed company or applicant.
A sponsor must:(1) deal with the FSA in an open and co-operative way;(2) deal with all enquiries raised by the FSA promptly.; and(3) disclose to the FSA in a timely manner any material information relating to the sponsor or to a listed company or applicant of which it has knowledge which addresses non-compliance with the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules.
An applicant for admission must apply to the FSA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity securities;(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing or a formal application;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the
When considering an application for admission to listing, the FSA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person
If the FSA is considering asking for the information specified in SUP 5.5.2 G it will take into consideration the cost of the skilled person complying with the request, and the benefit that the FSA may derive from the information. For example, in most cases, the FSA will not need to request a skilled person to give it source data, documents and working papers. However, the FSA may do so when it reasonably believes that this information will be relevant to any investigation
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R, the FSA expects that, in the case of substantial or complex reports, the skilled person will give a periodic update on progress and issues to allow for a re-focusing of the report if necessary. The channel of communication would normally be directly between the skilled person and the FSA. However, the FSA would also expect firms normally to be informed about the passage of information, and the skilled person would usually
A firm must ensure that the contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R:(1) is governed by the laws of a part of the United Kingdom; (2) expressly(a) provides that the FSA has a right to enforce the provisions included in the contract under SUP 5.5.1 R and SUP 5.5.5 R (2);(b) provides that, in proceedings brought by the FSA for the enforcement of those provisions, the skilled person is not to have available by way of defence, set-off or counterclaim any matter that is not relevant to
The FSA expects the firm, in complying with Principle 11, to give the FSA information about the cost of the skilled persons report. This may include both an initial estimate of the cost as well as the cost of the completed report. This information is required to help inform the FSA's decision making in the choice of regulatory tools. Information about the number and cost of reports by skilled persons will be published by the FSA.
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
(1) The FSA will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.(2) In relation to threshold conditions 4 and 5, the FSA will consider whether a firm is ready, willing and organised to comply, on a continuing basis, with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system which
Although the FSA may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FSA, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the threshold conditions. The FSA will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to the regulatory objectives set out in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's general duties). A firm
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the FSA unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the FSA. However, if an approved
person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report
to the FSA or acts in a way that is intended to
obstruct the reporting of the information to the FSA, then the FSA will, in respect of that information,
view him as being one of those within the firm who
has
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 E complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
likely significance to the FSA of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether
any decision not to report the matter internally was taken after reasonable
enquiry
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.7 E complies with Statement of Principle 4(APER
2.1.2 P), the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
likely significance of the information to the FSA which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether
any decision not to inform the FSA was taken after reasonable enquiry
and analysis of the situation.
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on
the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes
imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission. (See AUTH 3.6 and AUTH 3.7 for a further explanation of potential limitations and requirements on a firm's permission.)
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on
its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include
where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or
potential consumers.
The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for
enforcement purposes. ENF 3 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and
the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted
to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving
permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming
Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier,
this power applies only in relation to any top-up
permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers
under Part XIII of the Act in
relation to the permission of
an
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FSA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment. In such cases, the exemption is subject to a disclosure requirement which is itself
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FSA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
It appears to the FSA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FSA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FSA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FSA cannot
The requirements set out in this chapter represent an interim approach to transaction reporting, based on the reporting requirements which previous regulators applied to firms. A number of provisions reflect the interim nature of the requirements - notably the guidance in SUP 17.4.4. Also there are still significant differences in the requirements applicable to different categories of firm. To help firms the FSA intends to publish additional guidance from time to time covering developments and issues in transaction reporting (including sources of relevant information).
In the FSA's view, the matters identified in PERG 8.10.2 G mean that:(1) for a communication to be real time it must be made in course of an interactive dialogue; but that(2) if the interactive dialogue takes place by means of the exchange of letters or e-mails or in a publication, the communication will be deemed to be non-real time. In this case, publications include newspapers, journals, magazines or other periodical publications, websites or similar systems for the electronic
The words ‘personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue’ clearly imply that the first two are types of the third. In the FSA's view, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which a personal visit or telephone conversation would not be interactive. The very fact of a conversation taking place would mean two or more persons were interacting with each other. A telephone call is not the same thing as a conversation. It may be made to, or even by, an intelligent
In the FSA's view, the fact that scope for interaction is essential if a financial promotion is to be real time leads to the following conclusions.(1) Most communications made in written or pictorial form will not offer scope for interaction. The most likely exception to this is where persons are expected to respond immediately. This situation may arise, for example, where the equivalent of a telephone conversation is conducted by e-mail. This is the basis of the exemption in
In the FSA's view, a communication which may exist in enduring form will be a non-real time communication. Examples of this include videos, audio cassettes, bulletin boards, websites and recorded telephone messages. Messages placed on Internet chat-rooms will also be non-real time. Radio or television programmes or teletext services may contain communications that involve an interactive dialogue. For example, a communication made by the broadcaster and addressed to an interviewee
PERG 8.6.9 G explains that article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order has the broad effect that a communication is made to another person where it is addressed to a particular person or persons. It also states that a ‘recipient’ of a communication is the person or persons to who it is made (that is to whom it is addressed). This takes on importance where certain exemptions which apply to real time financial promotions made to a person are concerned. It appears to the FSA that,
In the FSA's view, persons who may be engaging in investment activity jointly include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons, who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective managers of a company
In the FSA's view, the mere fact of a person accepting an invitation to attend a meeting does not automatically mean that he has initiated any dialogue which may take place during the meeting and which may amount to a financial promotion. This will depend on the facts of each case and such matters as the manner in which the invitations are made, the arrangements for acceptance and how the meeting is conducted. For example, the fact that investments or investment services will
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be dealt with orally, although it is open to a person to seek a written confirmation from the FSA of oral guidance given by the FSA.
A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, with the exception of requests for guidance on the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Markets and Exchanges Division. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request.
The FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FSA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FSA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FSA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
The FSA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FSA, the more likely it is that the FSA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request,
The FSA will not refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R; or(2) a firm reduces its permission so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it,(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3) or FEES 4.3.6R
Table of periodic fees
1 Fee payer |
2 Fee payable |
3 Due date |
4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee |
Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) |
As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R. |
Firm receives permission; or Firm extends permission |
Any firm which reports its reportable transactions to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17) |
(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month (2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice |
Not applicable |
|
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) |
£1,000 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
|
Any manager of an authorised unit trust; |
In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme |
|
In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
|||
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme; |
In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme |
|
Not applicable |
|||
FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee: (1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000; (2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000. |
|
FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2 |
(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July. (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event. |
Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee: (1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000; (2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000. |
|
Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Issuer (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules |
|
10,00010 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Approval of sponsor |
|
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules |
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G
Question |
Variation of Part IV permission |
Cancellation of Part IV permission |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission. |
A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
Where do I find a summary of the application procedures? |
See SUP 6 Annex 2 . |
See SUP 6 Annex 3. |
The FSA may modify LR 2.2.4 R to allow partly paid securities to be listed if
it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors
have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and
proper basis. [Note: articles 46 and 54 CARD]
(1) This rule applies
if under the Act or under the
law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must
be approved and published for the securities;
or(b) the applicant is
permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for
the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must
have been approved by the FSA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA
State is the Home Member State for
the securities, the relevant
competent authority must have supplied the FSA with:(i)
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
(1) When assessing this threshold condition, the FSA may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 49 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant); for example, a firm's controllers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the threshold
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society) calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;(2) for each of thosetariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm for that period, applying any minimum fee discount as may be applicable (see FEES 4.3.16 R)9;(3) add together the amounts calculated
(1) A firm which becomes authorised during the course of a financial year will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission - see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission so that its business then falls within additional fee blocks will be required to pay a further periodic fee under this section for those additional fee blocks, but discounted to reflect
(1) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was at least £50,000, the firm must pay:(a) an amount equal to 50% of the periodic fee payable for the previous year, by 30 April in the financial yearto which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and (b) the balance of the periodic fee due for the current financial year by 1 September in the financial yearto which that sum relates.(2) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was less than £50,000,
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FSA in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FSA under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FSA will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding balance attributable to it.
The FSA recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm or of an incoming Treaty firm are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom. Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms are reduced.
(1) If:(a) a firm makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15 D (3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5 D (Cancellation of permission); and(b) the firm makes the application referred to in (a) before the start of the periodto which the fee relates;FEES 4.2.1 R applies to the firm as if the relevant variation or cancellation of the firm'spermission took effect immediately before the start of the periodto
The
significance of conduct identified in the Code
of Practice for Approved Persons as tending to establish compliance
with or a breach of a Statement of Principle will
be assessed only after all the circumstances of a particular case have been
considered. Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular controlled function and the behaviour to be
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FSA will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
UK domestic firmslisted on
the London Stock Exchange are subject to the Combined Code developed by the Committee
on Corporate Governance, whose internal
control provisions are amplified in the Guidance for Directorsissued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants in
England and Wales. FSA-regulated firms in this category will thus be subject
to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. In forming an opinion
whether approved persons have
complied
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT, the FSA would interpret the concept of directors in common to include
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FSA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FSA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order