Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1

21 - 40 of 134 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SUP 13.11.1RRP
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the requisite details or relevant details relating to those services or activities (if applicable).(2) The record in (1) must be kept for three years from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was superseded by a more up-to-date record; or(b) the UK firm ceased
SUP 13.11.3GRP
A UK firm should monitor the business carried on under an EEA right to ensure that any changes to requisite details or relevant details are notified as required by SUP 13.7 (Changes to cross border services).
DISP 1.1.1GRP
Subject to DISP 1.1.1A R, this5 chapter applies to every firm in respect of activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, except:5(1) (a) a firm that is exempt under DISP 1.1.7 R; (b) a UCITS qualifier;(c) an authorised professional firm in so far as its non-mainstream regulated activities are concerned; and(d) 1a credit union; or(2) in relation to the Society of Lloyd's, members of the Society and managing
DISP 1.1.3RRP
Firms are responsible for ensuring their appointed representatives' compliance with DISP 1.
SUP 14.1.1GRP
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive.(2) A Gibraltar insurance companyis allowed to passport its services into the United Kingdom if it complieswith the relevant notification procedures. Similarly, a Gibraltar credit institution is allowed to
SUP 14.1.4GRP
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. These are known as requisite details, or for firms passporting under the Insurance Directives relevant details.
SUP App 3.10.8GRP
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
SUP App 3.10.9GRP
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
The financial promotion regime under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) may also apply to EEA insurance undertakings regardless of whether they carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom or passport into the United Kingdom.
LR 17.1.2GRP
An issuer, as described in LR 17.1.1 R includes:(1) a state monopoly;(2) a state finance organisation;(3) a statutory body; and(4) an OECD state guaranteed issuer.
LR 17.1.3GRP
A state, a regional or local authority or a public international body with listed debt securities should see LR 17.5 for its continuing obligations
LR 17.5.1RRP
This chapter does not apply to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listed debt securities except that such an issuer must comply with:(1) LR 17.3.2 R (Admission to trading);(2) LR 17.3.3 R (Equality of treatment);(3) LR 17.4.1 R (3) (Disclosures to be made without delay to an RIS); and(4) LR 17.4.2 R to LR 17.4.4 G (Disclosure to holders: exercise of rights).
DISP 2.6.1RRP
The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction only if it relates to an act or omission by a firm in the carrying on of one or more of the following activities (unless the provision described in DISP 2.6.3 R applies):(1) regulated activities;(2) lending money secured by a charge on land;(3) lending money (other than restricted credit);(4) paying money by a plastic card (other than a store card);(5) the provision of ancillary banking services (see DISP
DISP 2.6.2GRP
The activities in DISP 2.6.1 R include any ancillary activities, including advice, provided by the firm in connection with those activities.
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
MCOB 1.3.1RRP
Except as set out in this section, MCOB applies if the customer of a firm carrying on regulated mortgage activities is resident in:(1) the United Kingdom; or(2) another EEA State, but in this case only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom;at the time that the regulated mortgage activity is carried on.
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to an activity exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the DMD; or(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those provided for by the DMD;and, in either case, with the result that the obligations
SUP 14.3.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the Investment Services Directive, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directives is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated
SUP 18.4.2GRP
Friendly societies are encouraged to discuss a proposed transfer or amalgamation with the FSA, at an early stage to help ensure that a workable timetable is developed. This is particularly important where there are notification requirements for supervisory authorities in EEA States other than the United Kingdom, or for an amalgamation where additional procedures are required.
SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
SUP 18.4.24GRP
For a directive friendly society, if the transfer or amalgamation includes policies where the state of the risk or the state of the commitment is an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, consultation with the Host State regulator is required and SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.29 G apply (for an amalgamation they apply as if the business of the amalgamating societies is to be transferred to the successor society). Paragraph 6(1) of Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount);

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount).

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" means –

(a)

an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R;

(c)

an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.

PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
COLL 6.3.1RRP
This section applies to an authorised fund manager, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC.
PERG 8.21.11GRP
Article 59 is capable of applying to financial promotions in company statements and briefings where they are accompanied by:(1) the whole or any part of the annual accounts of the company (provided it is not an open-ended investment company); or(2) any report prepared and approved by the directors of such a company under section 234 and 234A of the Companies Act 1985 or corresponding legislation in Northern Ireland or in another EEA State.In this respect, the FSA considers that
PERG 8.21.16GRP
Article 68 applies where the financial promotion relates to securities which have not yet been admitted to trading but for which application has been or is to be made. It exempts a non-real time or a solicited real-time financial promotion which a relevant EEA market requires to be communicated before admission to trading can be granted. A relevant EEA market for this purpose is a market with its head office in an EEA State and which meets the conditions in Part I of, or is specified
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 71applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:(1) listing particulars1;1(2) supplementary listing particulars1;1(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules ; and11(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by listing rules or Prospectus Rules.11The comments in PERG 8.21.14 G about when something is required or permitted to be published apply also to (4)1.1
COLL 4.3.7GRP
(1) Changes may be significant depending in each case on their degree of materiality and effect on the scheme and its unitholders. Consequently the authorised fund manager will need to determine whether in each case a particular change is significant in nature or not.(2) For the purpose of COLL 4.3.6 R a significant change is likely to include:(a) a change in the method of price publication;(b) a change in any operational policy such as dilution policy or allocation of payments
PERG 4.4.1GRP
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a first legal mortgage on land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom; and(3) at least 40% of that
PERG 4.4.5GRP
The condition set out in PERG 4.4.1G (2) means that a regulated mortgage contract must be secured on land in the United Kingdom. Contracts which involve taking security over moveable property therefore cannot be regulated mortgage contracts. So a contract secured on a caravan will not be a regulated mortgage contract, unless the contract also involves a mortgage over the land on which the caravan stands.
COLL 1.2.2GRP
(1) UCITS schemes have to comply with the conditions necessary in order to enjoy the rights available under the UCITS Directive. Such schemes must in particular comply with:(a) COLL 3.2.8 R (UCITS obligations); and(b) the investment and borrowing powers rules for UCITS schemes set out in COLL 5.2 to COLL 5.5 .(2) Non-UCITS retail schemes are schemes that do not comply with all the conditions set out in the UCITS Directive. Such schemes could become UCITS schemes provided they
SUP 6.2.12GRP
A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part IV permission on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. A variation of Part IV permission may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.
SUP 6.2.13GRP
A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission, wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.