Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
181 - 200 of 298 items.
The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that the FSA will consider when assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate for a controlled function (see generally SUP 10 on approved persons). The criteria are also relevant in assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of approved persons. The criteria that the FSA will consider in relation to an authorised person are described in COND.
By waiving or modifying the requirements
of a rule or imposing an additional requirement or limitation,
the FSA can
ensure that the rules, and
any other requirements or limitations imposed on a firm,
take full account of the firm's individual
circumstances, and so assist the FSA in
meeting the regulatory objectives (for
example, to protect consumers and maintain market confidence).
Where an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier wishes to cancel its top-up permission, either with or without cancellation of its qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3, 4, or 5 to the Act, it should make an application following the procedures set out in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).
1LR applies as follows:(1) all of LR (other than LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7) applies to an issuer; and(2) LR 1, LR 8.1, LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7 apply to a sponsor and a person applying for approval as a sponsor.FSA performing functions as competent authorityNote: In relation to the listing rules, the FSA is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Note: when exercising its functions as the competent
Section 21 of the Act came into force for financial promotions about funeral plans on 1 January 2002. A financial promotion about funeral plans is subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act if it relates to a pre-paid funeral plan of any kind where the provider of the plan carries on the regulated activity of entering as provider into a funeral plan contract under article 59 of the Regulated Activities Order (see PERG 2.8.14 G). This is the case even if the actual plan
The FSA has similar powers to supervise overseas recognised bodies to those it has to supervise UK recognised bodies. It may (in addition to any other powers it might exercise):(1) give directions to an overseas recognised body under section 296 of the Act (Authority's power to give directions) if it has failed, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the recognition requirements or if it has failed to comply with any other obligation imposed by or under the Act; or(2) revoke a recognition
After submitting a notificationunder SUP 11.4.2 R orSUP 11.4.2AR (1) and R (2) and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the FSA under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.1
The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom, for what activities, and within what territorial limits the rules, evidential provisions and guidance in MCOB apply. This chapter also provides guidance on the application of other parts of the Handbook to a firm that carries on regulated mortgage activities.
A person may need to ask the FSA for individual guidance on how the rules and general guidance in the Handbook, the Act or other regulatory requirements apply in their particular circumstances. This chapter describes how a person may do this. Section 157 of the Act gives the FSA the power to give guidance consisting of such information and advice as it considers appropriate.
The FSA may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the FSA will consider whether the conditions in section 148(4) of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate. The FSA may revoke a waiver with immediate effect, if it considers that this is necessary, for example, in order to prevent undue risk to consumers.
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange or overseas clearing house wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:(1) obtain a Part IV permission from the FSA; (2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights)
Section 81 of the Act (supplementary listing particulars) requires
an issuer to submit supplementary listing particulars to the FSA for approval if at any time after listing particulars have been submitted
to the FSA and before the commencement of dealings
in the securities following
their admission to the official list:(1) there is a significant change affecting
any matter contained in those particulars the inclusion of which was required
by:(a) section 80 of the Act (general
This chapter is subject to the following exceptions:(1) this chapter does not require an authorised professional firm to contravene any rule or principle of, or requirement of a published guidance note relating to, professional conduct applying generally to members of the profession regulated by its designated professional body;(2) this chapter does not prevent an authorised professional firm from providing professional advice, that is, in accordance with section 327(8) of the
The purposes of SYSC are:(1) to encourage firms' directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for their firms' arrangements on matters likely to be of interest to the FSA because they impinge on the FSA's functions under the Act;(2) to increase certainty by amplifying Principle 3, under which a firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems; and(3) to encourage
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the