Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1

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SUP 5.5.1RRP
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in
SUP 5.5.2GRP
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person
SUP 5.5.9RRP
A firm must provide all reasonable assistance to any skilled person appointed to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons).
SUP 5.5.12GRP
In complying with Principle 11, a firm is expected to take reasonable steps to ensure that a skilled person delivers a report in accordance with the terms of his appointment.
SUP 5.5.13GRP
Section 166(5) of the Act (Authority's power to require information) imposes a duty on certain persons to give assistance to a skilled person. The persons on whom this duty is imposed are those who are providing, or have at any time provided, services to any person falling within SUP 5.2.1 G. They include suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements.
SUP 12.3.1GRP
In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act ).
SUP 12.3.2GRP
The firm is responsible, to the same extent as if it had expressly permitted it, for anything the appointed representative does or omits to do, in carrying on the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act).
SUP 12.3.3GRP
In determining whether the firm has committed any offence, however, the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative are not attributable to the firm, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to it (section 39(6) of the Act).
SUP 11.7.1GRP
The approval procedures are summarised in SUP 11 Annex 3.
SUP 11.7.2GRP
If the FSA decides to approve a proposed acquisition or increase of control unconditionally, it must give an 'approval notice' without delay (section 184(1) of the Act).
SUP 11.7.3GRP
Alternatively, the FSA may decide to approve the proposed acquisition or increase of control subject to such conditions as it considers appropriate, having regard to the FSA's duty to ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions (section 185 of the Act).(1) If the FSA proposes to approve subject to conditions, it must give a warning notice.2(2) If the FSA decides to proceed to approve subject to conditions, it must give a decision
SUP 11.7.4GRP
A notice which approves a change of control (with or without conditions) is effective only for a limited period as set out in the notice (or, if no such period is specified, for one year) (section 184(3) of the Act). An approved change in control may not therefore take place after the end of this period.
SUP 11.7.13GRP
Before giving an approval notice orwarning notice , the FSAmust comply with certain requirements as to consultation with 1competent authorities outside the United Kingdom (sections 183(2) and 188(2) of the Act and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Consultation with Competent Authorities) Regulations 2001). The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special provision in relation to (the change in control over a UK authorised person (within the meaning of section
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
SUP 6.2.2GRP
Under section 20(1) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), a firm is prohibited from carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom (or purporting to do so) otherwise than in accordance with its permission.
SUP 15.3.11RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies); or(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;by (or as regards (c) against) the firm or any of its directors, officers, employees,
SUP 15.3.15RRP
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition), the FSA has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body.
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate for the FSA to give a direction
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be satisfiedin the following circumstances:(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act; or(3) the recognised
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying
PERG 9.3.1GRP
For a body corporate to be an open-ended investment company, as defined in section 236(1) of the Act:(1) it must be a collective investment scheme;(2) it must satisfy the property condition in section 236(2); and(3) it must satisfy the investment condition in section 236(3).
PERG 9.3.2GRP
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FSA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
PERG 9.3.5GRP
The FSA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
PERG 9.3.6GRP
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FSA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
SUP 3.6.3GRP
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R: (1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
SUP 3.6.5GRP
Section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required under the Act to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items, is relevant to SUP 3.6.1 R and SUP 3.6.3 G.
SUP 3.6.6GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5 R (3)).
SUP 3.6.7GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.
SUP 3.6.9GRP
Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.
PERG 9.4.1GRP
The first element of the definition is that open-ended investment companies are a corporate form of collective investment scheme. This means that they must have the features in section 235 of the Act.
PERG 9.4.2GRP
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
PERG 9.4.4GRP
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
PERG 9.4.5GRP
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
PERG 9.4.6GRP
In the FSA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
SUP 6.4.14GRP
Under section 397 of the Act (Misleading statements and practices), it is an offence, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed by or under the Act (including the directions in SUP 6.4.5 D), for a person to knowingly or recklessly give the FSA information that is false or misleading. If necessary, a firm should take appropriate professional advice when supplying information required by the FSA. An insurer, for example, may ask an actuary to check assumptions in respect
SUP 6.4.18GRP
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
SUP 6.4.23GRP
If the FSA has granted an application for cancellation of Part IV permission and withdrawn a firm's status as an authorised person (see SUP 6.5) it will retain certain investigative and enforcement powers in relation to the firm as a former authorised person. These include:(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (see ENF 2 (Information gathering and investigation powers));(2) powers to apply to court
SUP 6.4.24GRP
However, the FSA will not be able to use the following powers against former authorised persons:(1) powers to take disciplinary action against firms by publishing statements of misconduct under section 205 of the Act (Public censure) or imposing financial penalties under section 206(1) of the Act (Financial penalties); and(2) the power to require firms to make restitution under section 384 of the Act (Power of the FSA to require restitution).
SUP 6.4.27GRP
(1) Under section 52(1)of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA has six months to consider a completed application.(2) If the FSA receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 52(2) of the Act requires the FSA to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.(3) Within these time limits, however, the length of the process
SUP 13.4.2GRP
A UK firm cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).The conditions are that:(1) the
SUP 13.4.4GRP
If a UK firm has given the FSA a notice of intention in the required form, then:(1) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State Regulator within one month of receipt; or(2) (a) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from theInsurance Directives, paragraph 20(3A) of
SUP 13.4.5GRP
When the FSA sends a copy of a notice of intention, or if it gives a consent notice to the Host State regulator, it must inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so (paragraphs 20 (3B)(b) and (4) of Schedule 3 to the Act).4
PERG 5.12.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 5.12.2GRP
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part IVpermission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).

PERG 5.12.6GRP
In determining the location of an activity, and hence whether it is carried on in the United Kingdom, various factors need to be taken into account in turn, notably:(1) section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom);(2) the nature of the activity; and(3) the overseas persons exclusion (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Overseas persons)).
PERG 5.12.7GRP
Section 418 of the Act extends the meaning that 'carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would normally have by setting out additional cases in which a person who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is to be regarded as doing so. Each of the following cases thus amounts to carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom:(1) where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise
PERG 5.12.9GRP
Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where
SUP 14.6.1GRP
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 19of the Banking
SUP 14.6.2GRP
In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.6.9GRP
Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 Gand CIS 17.4.8 G (Revocation of recognition: Schemes recognised under section 264 of the Act).1
LR 4.2.1GRP
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing particulars) requires listing particulars submitted to the FSA to contain all such information as investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
LR 4.2.2RRP
(1) The listing particulars must contain a summary that complies with the requirements in section 87A(5) and (6) of the Act and PR 2.1.4 EU to PR 2.1.7 R (as if those requirements applied to the listing particulars).(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a) in relation to specialist securities referred to in LR 4.1.1R (2); or(b) if, in accordance with PR 2.1.3 R, no summary would be required in relation to the securities.
LR 4.2.9GRP
Under section 82 of the Act (exemptions from disclosure) the FSA may authorise the omission from listing particulars of information on specified grounds.
LR 4.2.10RRP
A request to the FSA to authorise the omission of specific information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
LR 4.2.11RRP
For the purposes of section 82(1)(g) of the Act, specialist securities are specified.
SUP 2.3.1GRP
The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have
SUP 2.3.3GRP
In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the FSA of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the FSA as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the FSA reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession or control, and provide any facilities which the representatives
SUP 2.3.5RRP
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the FSA, or persons appointed for the purpose by the FSA, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the FSA's functions under the Act.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements and appointed representatives permit such access to their business premises. (See also, in respect
SUP 2.3.7RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements deals in an open and cooperative way with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm.
COND 1.3.1GRP
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
COND 1.3.4GRP
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
REC 5.2.3GRP
An application should:(1) be made in accordance with any directions the FSA may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) or section 288 (Application by a clearing house) of the Act;(2) be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory provisions (the material specifically prescribed in section 287 or section 288);(3) be accompanied by the information, evidence and explanatory material (including supporting documentation) necessary to demonstrate to the FSA that
REC 5.2.6GRP
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary), the FSA may require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely importance for any application, the FSA will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's information technology systems.
REC 5.2.12GRP
Where the FSA considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order, or to seek the Treasury's approval, it will discuss its concerns with the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G). If the FSA decides that it will not make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) and described
SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission. (See AUTH 3.6 and AUTH 3.7 for a further explanation of potential limitations and requirements on a firm's permission.)
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
SUP 7.2.3GRP
The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for enforcement purposes. ENF 3 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its day to day supervision of firms. This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
SUP 18.1.3GRP
Insurance business transfers are subject to Part VII of the Act and must be approved by the court under section 111. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers)(Requirements on Applicants) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3625) also apply. These regulations set out minimum requirements for publicising schemes, notifying certain interested parties directly (subject to the discretion of the court), and giving information to anyone who requests it.
SUP 18.1.4GRP
An insurance business transfer scheme is defined in section 105 of the Act and the definition has been extended to transfers from members of Lloyd's to reflect the effect of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Transfers of Business Done at Lloyd's) Order 2001(SI 2001/3626). With certain exclusions (relating to some schemes approved under foreign legislation, some novations of reinsurance or some captive insurers), it includes, in broad terms, any scheme to
SUP 18.1.6GRP
Under section 112 of the Act, the court has wide discretion to transfer property and liabilities to the transferee and to make orders in relation to incidental, consequential and supplementary matters. In the opinion of the FSA, the court has the power in such cases and on such terms as may be appropriate, to transfer the benefit of reinsurance contracts protecting the transferred business and to make such amendments to the terms of those contracts as may be necessary to give
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
PERG 2.5.4GRP
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of the Investment Services Directive. In this Directive, persons (called 'investment firms') who are caught by the Directive must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. An investment firm is any person whose ordinary business involves the provision to third parties on a professional basis of core investment services (these services are described in the extract from the Directive in
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by the Investment Services Directive. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by the Directive) have been made unavailable to investment firms. Article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general) lists a number of exclusions that must be disregarded. These
PERG 2.5.6GRP
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated