Related provisions for SUP 3.6.1

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SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application). In particular, an incoming EEA firm is referred to the EEA investment business oversight function (CF 9, see SUP 10.7.6 R).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1.1.7 R). Note that SYSC 1.1.10 R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1.1.1 R (2) and SYSC 1.1.7 R restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SYSC App 1). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governancerecommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities?

ECO 1.1.6 R has the effect that SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1
SUP 4.2.1GRP
Section 340 of the Act gives the FSA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the FSA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification to the FSA of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the FSA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The FSA's rule-making powers under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
SUP 18.4.18GRP
The FSA may require confirmation from the auditors of either friendly society involved in the transfer or amalgamation about the reasonableness of any part of the information in the statement. For instance such confirmation would normally be required if the financial information relates to a date more than six months previously.
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
SYSC 3.2.15GRP
Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to form an audit committee. An audit committee could typically examine management's process for ensuring the appropriateness and effectiveness of systems and controls, examine the arrangements made by management to ensure compliance with requirements and standards under the regulatory system, oversee the functioning of the internal audit function (if applicable - see SYSC 3.2.16 G)
SUP 4.5.7GRP
Actuaries appointed under this chapter2 are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under section 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not contravene any duty by giving information or expressing an opinion to the FSA, if he is acting in good faith and he reasonably believes that the information
SUP 5.4.9GRP
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the FSA to nominate or approve the appointment of a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. For example, the FSA may nominate, or approve the appointment of, the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G to prepare a report taking into account, where relevant, the considerations set out in SUP 5.4.7 G.
CASS 5.4.4RRP
A firm may not handle client money in accordance with the rules in this section unless each of the following conditions is satisfied:(1) the firm must have and maintain systems and controls which are adequate to ensure that the firm is able to monitor and manage its client money transactions and any credit risk arising from the operation of the trust arrangement and, if in accordance with CASS 5.4.2 R a firm complies with both the rules in CASS 5.3 and CASS 5.4, such systems and
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance.

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform, settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply.

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures.

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
COLL 6.6.8RRP
(1) The manager of an AUT must, upon any vacancy for the position of auditor for an AUT, with the approval of the trustee, appoint as auditor for the AUT a person qualified for appointment as auditor of an authorised person.(2) The audit fees of the auditor are determined by the manager with the approval of the trustee.(3) The manager of an AUT may, with the approval of the trustee, at any time, remove the auditor of an AUT; this power exists notwithstanding anything in any agreement
COLL 8.3.4RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.3.2 R.

1

Document status

A statement that this document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date which shall be the date of the document.

2

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is either an ICVC or an AUT;

(3)

that the scheme is a qualified investor scheme;

(4)

where relevant, that the unitholders in an ICVC are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(5)

where relevant, the address of the ICVC's head office and the address in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(6)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FSA and, if the duration of the authorised fund is not unlimited, when it will or may terminate;

(7)

the base currency for the authorised fund;

(8)

where relevant, the maximum and minimum sizes of the ICVC's capital; and

(9)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund may be wound up under the rules in COLL and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up.

3

Investment objectives and policy

(1)

Sufficient information to enable a unitholder to ascertain:

(a)

the investment objectives of the authorised fund;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including:

(i)

the general nature of the portfolio and any intended specialisation;

(ii)

the policy for the spreading of risk in the scheme property; and

(iii)

the policy in relation to the exercise of borrowing powers;

(c)

a description of any restrictions in the assets in which investment may be made; and

(d)

the extent (if any) to which that investment policy does not envisage remaining fully invested at all times.

(2)

For investment in immovables :

(a)

the countries or territories of immovables in which the authorised fund may invest;

(b)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of immovables forming part of the scheme property; and

(c)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to the granting of options over immovables in the scheme property and the purchase of options on immovables.

(3)

If intended, whether the scheme property may consist of units in collective investment schemes ("second schemes") which are managed by or operated by the authorised fund manager or by one of its associates and a statement as:

(a)

to the basis of the maximum amount of the charges in respect of transactions in a second scheme; and

(b)

the extent to which any such charges will be reimbursed to the scheme.

(4)

If intended, whether the scheme may enter into stock lending transactions and, if so, what procedures will operate and what collateral will be required.

4

Distributions and accounting dates

Relevant details of accounting and distribution dates and a description of the procedures:

(1)

for determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid); and

(2)

relating to unclaimed distributions.

5

The characteristics of units in the authorised fund

Information as to:

(1)

the names of the classes of units in issue or available for issue and the rights attached to them in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(2)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these are; and

(3)

the circumstances where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required.

6

The authorised fund manager

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the date of its incorporation and if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease;

(4)

if it is a subsidiary, the name of its ultimate holding company and the country or territory in which that holding company is incorporated;

(5)

the address of its registered office, its head office, and, if different, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(6)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up;

(7)

for an ICVC, a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the authorised fund manager which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; and

(8)

for an AUT, the names of the directors of the manager.

7

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

Other than for the ACD:

(1)

the names and positions in the ICVC of the directors; and

(2)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of the directors.

8

The depositary

The following particulars of the depositary:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the address of its registered office and the address of its head office if that is different from the address of its registered office; and

(4)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom.

9

The investment adviser

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund, its name and whether or not it is authorised by the FSA.

10

The auditor

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

11

The register of Unitholders

Details of the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders is kept and can be inspected by unitholders.

12

Payments out of the scheme property

The payments that may be made out of the scheme property to any person whether by way of remuneration for services, or reimbursement of expense and for each category of remuneration or expense, the following should be specified:

(1)

the current rates or amounts of such remuneration;

(2)

how the remuneration will be calculated and accrue and when it will be paid;

(3)

if notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager's intention to:

(a)

introduce a new category of remuneration for its services; or

(b)

increase the basis of any current charge; or

(c)

change the basis of the treatment of a payment from the capital property set out in COLL 8.5.13 R (2) (Payments);

particulars of that introduction or increase and when it will take place;

(4)

the types of any other charges and expenses that may be taken out of the scheme property; and

(5)

if, in accordance with COLL 8.5.13 R (2), all or part of the remuneration or expense are to be treated as a capital charge:

(a)

that fact; and

(b)

the basis of the charge which may be so treated

13

Dealing

Details of:

(1)

the dealing days and times in the dealing day on which the authorised fund manager will receive requests for the sale and redemption of units;

(2)

the procedures for effecting:

(a)

the issue and cancellation of units;

(b)

the sale and redemption of units; and

(c)

the settlement of transactions;

(3)

the steps required to be taken by a unitholder in redeeming units before he can receive the proceeds including any relevant notice periods and the circumstances and periods where a deferral of payment as provided in COLL 8.5.11 R (3) (Sale and redemption) may be applied;

(4)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(5)

the days and times in the day on which recalculation of the price will commence;

(6)

details of the minimum number or value of each type of unit in the authorised fund which:

(a)

any one person may hold; and

(b)

may be the subject of any one transaction of sale or redemption;

(7)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for, a redemption of units in specie;

(8)

the circumstances in which the further issue of units in any particular class may be limited and the procedures relating to this

(9)

the circumstances in which direct issue or cancellation of units by the ICVC or the trustee (as appropriate) may occur and the relevant procedures for such issues and cancellations

14

Valuation of scheme property

Details as to:

(1)

how frequently and at what times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued to determine the price at which units in the scheme may be purchased from or redeemed by the authorised fund manager and a description of any circumstance where the scheme property may be specially valued;

(2)

in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued, the basis on which it will be valued; and

(3)

how the price of units of each class will be determined, including whether a forward price or historic price basis is to be applied.

15

Sale and redemption charges

If the authorised fund manager makes any charges on sale or redemption of units, details of the charging structure and how notice will be provided to unitholders of any increase.

16

General information

Details as to:

(1)

when annual and half- yearly reports will be published; and

(2)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained.

17

Information on the umbrella

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(1)

that a unitholder may exchange units in one sub-fund for units in another sub-fund and that such an exchange is treated as a redemption and sale;

(2)

what charges may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in other sub-funds;

(3)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(4)

in respect of each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the umbrella; and

(5)

for an ICVC, that the sub-funds are not "ring fenced" and in the event of an umbrella being unable to meet liabilities attributable to any particular sub-fund out of the assets attributable to that sub-fund, the remaining liabilities may have to be met out of the assets attributable to other sub-funds.

18

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(1)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(2)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

19

Additional information

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by the making of reasonable enquiries which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating.
SUP 12.5.3GRP
A firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to its premises, as described in
COLL 1.1.1GRP
(1) This sourcebook, except for COLL 9 (Recognised schemes), applies to:(a) investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs);(b) ACDs, other directors and depositaries of ICVCs; and(c) managers and trustees of authorised unit trust schemes (AUTs).(2) COLL 9 applies to operators of schemes that are recognised schemes and to those seeking to secure recognised status for such schemes.