Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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COLL 9.1.1RRP
This chapter applies to operators of recognised schemes and to operators of schemes making a notification in respect of them under Chapter V of Part XVII of the Act (Recognised overseas schemes).
COLL 9.1.2GRP
This chapter enables potential operators of recognised schemes to know what information and documents the FSA wish to receive to enable it to consider whether to recognise the scheme under the Act for marketing in the United Kingdom.
SUP 8.1.2GRP
A recognised body should see REC 3.3 for information on waivers of rules in REC under section 294 of the Act.
SUP 8.1.3GRP
This chapter is not relevant to the functions of the UKLA, that is the FSA acting in its capacity as the competent authority for the purposes of Part VI of the Act (Official Listing).
SUP 11.2.1GRP
Part XII of the Act (Control over authorised persons) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the FSA of changes in control. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before becoming a controller or increasing the level of control held (in certain circumstances). SUP 11.3 is intended to assist those persons in complying with their obligations
SUP 11.2.3GRP
As the approval of the FSA is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the FSA still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings (see COND). The FSA therefore needs
SUP 11.2.5GRP
Similarly, the FSA needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the FSA needs to be notified of any changes in a firm's close links. This requirement is contained in SUP 11.9.2
SUP 5.4.1GRP
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
SUP 5.4.6GRP
The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G the skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and (2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected
COLL 6.5.7RRP
(1) The manager of an AUT is subject to removal by written notice by the trustee upon any of the following events:(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the manager;(b) an application being made to dissolve the manager or to strike it off the Register of Companies;(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the manager;(d) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of the manager's
COLL 6.5.8RRP
(1) The manager of an AUT has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the trustee upon:(a) the retiring manager appointing that person by deed as manager in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a manager; and(b) the new manager entering into such deeds as the trustee reasonably considers necessary or desirable to be entered into by that person in order to secure the due performance of
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FSA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
SUP 13.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
SUP 13.1.5GRP
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
SUP 11.5.8GRP
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the FSA by submitting a single joint notificationcontaining the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the Controllers Form A may be used to submit a notification on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.
SUP 11.5.9GRP
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a singlenotification in respect of all those firms. The notificationshould contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information and documentation need not be duplicated.
SUP 11.5.10GRP
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the FSA by submitting a single notification containing one set of information.
SUP 3.1.1RRP
This chapter applies to:(1) every firm within a category listed in column (1) of the table in SUP 3.1.2 R; and(2) the external auditor of such a firm (if appointed under SUP 3.3 or appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act);in accordance with column (2) or (3) of that table, except as described in the remainder of this section.2
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,10 or 13 of IPRU(INV) (Note 1)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which either or both of CASS 2 (Client assets) and CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) applies , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank or building society which in either case carries on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank or building society which in either case does not carry on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5B)

ELMI

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm), UCITS management company, or securities and futures firm (Note 3)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 - SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Mortgage lender8

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which CASS 5 (Client money and mandates) (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Mortgage intermediary or mortgage administrator which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 = In row (2):

(a) CASS 2 (Client assets) is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguarding and administering investments in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguarding and administering investments in relation to bonded investments;

(b) CASS 4 (Client money and mandates: designated investment business) is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client;

but, if CASS 2 or CASS 4 is treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of CASS 2 or CASS 4.

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general: core investment services by investment firms).

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
COLL 7.4.3RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in paragraph (2) and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT;(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel units;(c) the manager must cease to sell and redeem units; (d) the manager must cease to arrange the issue or cancellation of units under COLL 6.2.7 R (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FSAmay seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative in certain situations including the following:(1) If the FSA determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules, the FSAmay seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which
SUP 7.3.3GRP
The FSA may seek to impose requirements or limitations which include but are not restricted to:(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity gaps;(3) requiring a firm to submit a business plan (or for an insurer, a scheme of operations (see SUP
SUP 7.3.4GRP
The FSA will seek to give a firm reasonable notice of an intent to vary its permission and to agree with the firm an appropriate timescale. However, if the FSA considers that a delay may be prejudicial to the interest of consumers, the FSA may need to act immediately using its powers under section 45 of the Actto vary a firm's Part IV permission with immediate effect.
COLL 5.2.13RRP
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (d):(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be recognised under the provisions of section 270 of the Act (Schemes authorised
COLL 5.2.14GRP
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 270of the Act.(2) Article 19 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a non-UCITS retail scheme, or its equivalent EEAscheme which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set in COLL 5.2.13R (1)(c) and COLL 5.2.13R (1)(d).
SUP 3.3.7RRP
(1) Paragraph (2) applies to a firm which is not under an obligation to appoint an auditor imposed by an enactment other than the Act.(2) If a firm fails to appoint an auditor within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the FSA may appoint an auditor for it on the following terms:(a) the auditor to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the auditor and firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and(b) the auditor to hold office until he resigns or the
COLL 7.6.1GRP
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FSA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee) or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change except in accordance with that section or regulation.(2) The issue of units in exchange for assets as
COLL 7.6.2RRP
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
SUP 12.6.6RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act; and(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the appointed representative's other business:(a) which is performed as an appointed representative of another firm; or(b) which:(i)
SUP 12.6.8GRP
(1) Some of the controlled functions, as set out in SUP 10.4.1 R, apply to an appointed representative of a firm, other than an introducer appointed representative, just as they apply to a firm (see SUP 10.1.16 R). These are the governing functions and the customer functions (other than the investment management function) such as, for example, CF 21, the investment adviser function. As explained in SUP 10.1.16A R, SUP 10.1.17G (3) and SUP 10.3.2 G respectively:2(a) the effect
REC 2.2.1UKRP

Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6

(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirementsapplying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of thepersonconcerned and its regulatory provisions and practices within the meaning of section 302(1) of theAct.

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson.

(3) Where a [ UK recognised body ] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them.1

REC 2.2.6GRP
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
SUP 3.4.5RRP
A firm must not appoint as auditor a person who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an auditor either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.
SUP 3.4.6GRP
If it appears to the FSA that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an auditor is being considered or put into effect, see ENF 17. A list of persons who are disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
SUP 3.10.13GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FSA. They do not apply to reports required by SUP 3.10 because of the specific provisions in SUP 3.10.12 R.
SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or