Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4
161 - 180 of 276 items.
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the rules relating to the internal handling of complaints by firms, including the procedures which a firm must put in place; the time limits within which a firm must deal with a complaint; the records of a complaint which a firm must make and retain; and the requirements on a firm to report information about complaints to the FSA. This is to ensure that complaints are handled fairly, effectively and promptly, and resolved at the earliest
Amendments to a friendly society's registered rules may be necessary to permit a transfer to it. The FSA will need to be consulted in the usual way about registration of the appropriate rules. Similarly for an amalgamation, each of the amalgamating societies has to approve the memorandum and rules of the new society and the requirements of schedule 3 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 have to be met. It will be necessary to allow adequate time for these processes.
Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992:(1) when the members of a transferor society have approved the transfer of its engagements by passing a special resolution and the transferee has approved the transfer (by passing a resolution where the transferee is a friendly society); or(2) when two or more societies have approved a proposed amalgamation by passing a special resolution;it, or they jointly, must then obtain confirmation by the FSA of the transfer. Notice of the application
The purpose of this appendix is to describe how FOS Ltd must handle relevant existing complaints (that is, the partly completed complaints which it inherits from the former schemes at commencement under the Ombudsman Transitional Order). Complaints which firms (as opposed to the former schemes) have partly completed at commencement will be handled as described in DISP 1 (Complaint handling procedures for firms) (see, in particular, DISP 1.4.6 R).
If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see ENF 17 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)2. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to the
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FSA may have regard to:(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (2) On suspension, the authorised fund manager, or the depositary if it has required the authorised
(1) Recognised bodies are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).(2) UK recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. Overseas recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements laid down in section 292 of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies are set out, with guidance, in REC 2.(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FSA's approach to the supervision of recognised bodies is given in REC 4.(4) Guidance for applicants (and potential applicants) for UK recognised body status is given in REC 5.(5) The recognition requirements, notification rules, and guidance for overseas
In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FSA may have regard to whether: (1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to admit
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (See SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; (2) to
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually, containing the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable).(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware:(a) that it has any controllers; or(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report under (1); or(c) of any changes in the percentage of shares or voting power in the firm held by any controllers
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
(1) The Takeover Panel publishes notices regarding compliance with the Takeover Code and SARs. It may also, from time to time, name in those notices persons as persons that, in the Takeover Panel's opinion, are not likely to comply with the Takeover Code or the SARs. Any notices of this type will be available on the Takeover Panel's website (www.thetakeoverpanel.org.uk).(2) A firm should keep itself informed of Takeover Panel notices and take them into account in seeking to comply
(1) Where a restriction under MAR 4.3.1 R applies, an authorised professional firm is not prevented from providing professional advice or representation in any proceedings to the person where that falls within section 327(8) of the Act. This means that the person can obtain legal advice or representation in any proceedings from a law firm and accounting advice from an accounting firm: see MAR 4.4.1 R (2).(2) While the FSA recognises the duty of authorised professional firms to
The three tests in the Act which must be satisfied in order to establish that behaviour (see MAR 1.3), whether by one person alone or by two or more persons jointly or in concert, amounts to market abuse are as follows:(1) the behaviour must occur in relation to a qualifying investment traded on a prescribed market (see MAR 1.11);(2) the behaviour must satisfy one or more of the three conditions identified in section 118(2) of the Act (market abuse), the text of which is set out
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letter "D" unless they form part of a piece of guidance. For a discussion of the status of provisions marked with a letter, see Chapter 6 of the Reader's Guide.1(2) Where the guidance states that the FSA may have regard to any factor in assessing or determining whether a recognition requirement
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations and the Companies Act 1989 and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning as Handbook defined terms
Neither the Post BCCI Directive, the Insurance Mediation Directive nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FSA will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 1(1) the directors and other
(1) The FSA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under section 256 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FSA receives such requests
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not