SUP Sch 2 Notification requirements
Handbook reference |
Matter to be notified |
Contents of notification |
Trigger event |
Time allowed |
Vacancy in the office of auditor. |
The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it. |
Vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen. |
Without delay. |
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Appointment of auditor. |
The fact of the appointment, name and business address of the auditor and the date the appointment takes effect. |
Appointment of auditor. |
Not specified. |
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SUP 3.3.5 R |
Vacancy in the office of auditor to a Lloyd's underwriting agent or the auditor of the insurance business of a Lloyd's syndicate.9 |
The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it 9 |
Vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen. |
Without delay. |
Appointment of auditor by Lloyd's underwriting agent. |
The fact of the appointment, name and business address of the auditor and the date the appointment takes effect. 9 |
Appointment of auditor. |
Not specified. |
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Auditor not independent of the firm. |
The fact of the lack of independence. |
A reasonable time. |
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Expectation that auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph. |
Fact of expectation. |
Firm decides qualification or explanatory paragraph is probable and the matter justifies notifying the FSA. |
Not specified. |
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The firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls. |
Content of written communication. |
Firm receives written communication and decides that it is appropriate that the FSA should be informed. |
Not specified. |
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Matters requiring reporting under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act. |
Information on or the auditor's opinion on the matters which have caused the auditor to believe the circumstances set out in Statutory Instrument 2001 No. 2587 apply. |
Auditor believes that the circumstances set out in Statutory Instrument 2001 No.2587 paragraph 2 apply. |
Not specified. |
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Auditor: termination of office. |
The fact of the termination. |
Auditor removed from office by the firm, resigns before his term of office expires or is not re-appointed by the firm. |
Without delay. |
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Auditor: termination of office. |
Any matter connected with ceasing which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or the fact that there is no such matter. |
Auditor ceasing to be (or being formally notified that he will cease to be) auditor of the firm. |
Without delay. |
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Auditor: certain investment business firms - annual report. |
Various matters including relevant financial reporting statements and adequacy of financial resources and whether proper accounting records kept. |
After each accounting reference date. |
Securities and futures firms: three months; Personal investment firms and investment management firms: four months. |
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Auditor: certain investment business firm - inability to prepare annual report. |
Inability to report on matters set out in SUP 3.9; reasons why unable to meet the requirements. |
Inability to report within timetable (see time allowed). |
Securities and futures firms: three months; Personal investment firms and investment management firms: four months. |
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Auditor: client assets. |
Either: (1) Whether firm has: maintained systems to comply with CASS (client assets), is in compliance with the client asset rules at the report date, and nominee company records are adequate; or (2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that they were held. |
Report period must end no more than 53 weeks after previous report. |
A reasonable time22 22 |
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Failure by auditor to report under SUP 3.10.4 R. |
Auditor to report the failure and the reasons why it has been unable to meet the requirements of SUP 3.10.7 R. |
Failure by the auditor to deliver a report under SUP 3.10.4 R to the FSA so as to be received within four months of the end of each period covered by the report. |
Not specified. |
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Vacancy in the office of actuary.16 16 |
The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it. |
Vacancy in the office of actuary16 will arise or has arisen. 16 |
Without delay. |
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16 |
Matters specified in SUP 10 (because the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function are specified as controlled functions).16 16 |
16 |
Before appointment. |
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Actuary: termination of office. |
The fact of the termination. |
Actuary removed from office by the firm, resigns before his term of office expires or is not re-appointed by the firm. |
Without delay. |
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Actuary: ceasing to hold office. |
Any matter connected with ceasing which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or the fact that there is no such matter. |
Actuary ceasing to be (or being formally notified that he will cease to be) actuary of the firm. |
Without delay. |
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Actuary:16 ceasing to hold office. 16 |
Matters specified in SUP 10.13.6 R and SUP 10.13.7 R (because the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function are specified as controlled functions).16. 16 |
Actuary 16 ceasing to hold office. 16 |
Seven business days; or, if approved persons Form C is qualified, as soon as reasonably practicable. |
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Vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary will arise or has arisen. |
Fact of the vacancy and the reason for the vacancy. |
The Society of Lloyd's becomes aware that a vacancy will arise or has arisen. |
Without delay. |
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Syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion under SUP 4.6.16 R. |
Fact that the syndicate actuary will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion (to be notified by the managing agent to the FSA). |
The managing agent becomes aware that the syndicate actuary will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion. |
Notification to be made promptly. |
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Delay in producing a skilled person report. |
Skilled person: inform the FSA and the person in SUP 5.2.1 G that the report may not be delivered on time. |
The skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered on time. |
As soon as possible. |
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Matters which the skilled person is required and permitted to report to the FSA. |
As set out in SUP 5.5.1 R. |
Skilled person becomes aware of reportable matter. |
Not specified. |
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Cost of skilled person report. |
As set out in SUP 5.5.8 G. |
On request. |
Not specified. |
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Firm seeking to vary its Part IV permission substantially or cancel its Part IV permission. |
The fact of seeking such applications to initiate discussion. |
Firm seeking to vary its Part IV permission substantially or cancel its Part IV permission. |
As early as possible before making the application. |
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Firm intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently. |
The fact of intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently. |
Firm intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently. |
Prompt notice. |
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Firm winding down (running off) its activities. |
The fact of winding down (running off) its activities. |
Firm winding down (running off) its activities. |
Before making an application for variation of or cancellation of Part IV permission. |
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Variation of permission. |
The desired variation and the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on. The FSA will advise the firm of any additional information required (see SUP 6.3.15 D to SUP 6.3.27 G). |
Firm wishes to vary its Part IV permission. |
Before variation is required; the FSA has six months to consider a completed application. |
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Variation of permission- any significant change in information provided. |
Any significant change in the information given in the application. |
Until the application has been determined, a change in information provided on the application for variation of Part IV permission. |
Immediately. |
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Cancellation of Part IV permission. |
Reasons for the application, the date on which the firm has ceased, or expects to cease, to carry on regulated activities and an explanation of the full circumstances of its application. |
Firm wishes to cancel its Part IV permission. |
Before cancellation is required; the FSA has six months to consider a completed application. See SUP 6.4.3 G. |
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The FSA will advise the firm of any additional information required (see SUP 6.4.8 G to SUP 6.4.17 G). |
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Cancellation of Part IV permission- any significant change in information provided. |
Any significant change in the information given in the application. |
Until the application has been determined, a change in information provided on the application for a cancellation of Part IV permission. |
Immediately. |
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Application for a waiver. |
The form in SUP 8 Annex 2(Application form for a waiver or modification).7 |
Before the waiver is required; the FSA will aim to give a waiver decision within 20 business days of receiving the application. |
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Waiver: altered circumstances. |
The matter that affects the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or waiver. |
Firm that has applied for or has been granted a waiver becoming aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or waiver. |
Immediately. |
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Guidance request. |
Sufficient information to enable the FSA to properly evaluate the situation and respond. In particular, identification of the rule, general guidance or other matter on which the individual guidance is sought and a description of the circumstances relating to the request. |
Before individual guidance required (the FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable request).19 |
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Approved persons- application. |
Approved persons the relevant 24Form A Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 Annex 4). |
Firm wishes to appoint a person to a controlled function. |
Before appointment takes effect (the FSA has three months to consider a properly completed application but will deal with cases more quickly whenever circumstances allow). |
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Approved persons- withdrawal of an application. |
Approved persons Form B Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 Annex 5). |
Firm wishes to withdraw an application for approved person status. |
Not specified. |
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Approved persons- moving within a firm. |
Approved persons Form E Internal transfer of an approved person (see SUP 10 Annex 8). |
An approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more new controlled functions within the same firm. |
Before appointment takes effect (the FSA has three months to consider a properly completed application but will deal with cases more quickly whenever circumstances allow). |
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Approved persons- ceasing to perform a controlled function. |
Approved persons Form C Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions (see SUP 10 Annex 6). |
An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function. |
Seven business days after an approved person ceases to perform a controlled function. |
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Approved persons- ceasing to perform a controlled function- qualified withdrawal. |
The fact of the qualified withdrawal. |
An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function and the firm becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of that approved person(qualified defined in SUP 10.13.7 R (2): approved person dismissed; approved person under investigation; approved person's fitness and propriety affected). |
As soon as practicable (guidance in SUP 10.13.8 Gstates, where possible, within one business day). |
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Approved persons- change to personal details - title, name or national insurance number. |
Approved persons Form D Notification of changes in personal information or application details (see SUP 10 Annex 7). |
An approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes. |
Seven business days of the firm becoming aware. |
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Approved persons- change to personal details - information reasonably material to fitness and propriety. |
Approved persons Form D Notification of changes in personal information or application details (see SUP 10 Annex 7). |
Firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an approved person's, or a candidate's, fitness and propriety. |
As soon as practicable. |
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Controllers - person proposing to acquire or increase control- notification from controller or proposed controller. |
If the controller or proposed controller is an authorised person: those sections of Controllers Form A which deal with details of the proposed change in control, joint notifications and supplementary information (see SUP 11 Annex 4D) If the controller or proposed controller is an authorised person and a fund manager which satisfies SUP 11.3.5 G: notification in accordance with SUP 11.3.5 G.15 |
Proposing to take a step which would result in acquiring the specified control. |
Before acquiring control (the FSA has up to three months to consider whether to approve control).15 |
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In other cases: all of Controllers Form A (see SUP 11 Annex 4) and one or more of Controllers Form B (see SUP 11 Annex 5) for relevant individuals (see SUP 11.3.8 D). |
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Controllers- correction to previously submitted information by controller. |
Details of the information which may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed. |
A person who submitted a notification under SUP 11.3.7 D becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate or has or may have changed, in a material particular. |
Immediately. |
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Controllers- proposing to reduce control- notification from controller. |
Extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control If the controller is a fund manager which satisfies SUP 11.3.5 G: notification in accordance with SUP 11.3.5 G.15 |
Reduction in control. |
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Controllers- change in control occurs - notification from controller. |
Date relevant change of control occurred. If a person has reduced control, details of the extent of control retained (if any). |
Change in control has occurred. |
Not specified. |
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Controllers- proposed change of control- notification from a UK domestic firm. |
When acquiring or increasing control: (1) the name of the firm; (2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers; (3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and (4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation. The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate. When reducing control: (1) the name of the controller; and (2) details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control. |
(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control; (2) an existing controller acquiring an additional kind of control or ceasing to have a kind of control; (3) an existing controller increasing or decreasing a kind of control which he already has so that the percentage of shares or voting power concerned becomes or ceases to be equal to or greater than 20, 33 or 50 (4) an existing controller becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking. |
As soon as the firm becomes aware that a person is proposing to take a step that would result in the event concerned; or if the event takes place without the knowledge of the firm, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the event concerned. |
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Controllers - proposed change of control notification from a UK insurance intermediary.8 |
When acquiring control: (1) the name of the firm; (2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers; (3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and (4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation. The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate. When reducing control: (1) name of the controller; and (2) details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.8 |
(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control; (2) a person becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking.8 |
As soon as the firm becomes aware that a person is proposing to take such a step that would result in the event concerned; or if the event takes place without the knowledge of the firm, 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the event concerned.8 |
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Controllers- proposed change of control- notification from an overseas firm. |
When acquiring or increasing control:(1) the name of the firm; (2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person the names of its directors and its controllers; (3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and (4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation. The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from firm and other sources as appropriate. When reducing control: (1) the name of the controller; details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control. |
(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control; (2) an existing controller becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking. |
As soon as the firm becomes aware that a person is proposing to take a step that would result in the event concerned; or if the event takes place without the knowledge of the firm, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the event concerned. |
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Controllers- notification under Principle 11 by firms. |
Proposed change of control. |
Any prospective changes of which the firm is aware, in controllers' or proposed controllers' shareholdings or voting power (if the change is material). |
The earliest opportunity and before the formal notifications . As a minimum, the FSA considers such discussions should take place before a person: (1) enters into any formal agreement in respect of the purchase of shares or a proposed acquisition or merger which would result in a change in control (whether or not the agreement is conditional upon any matter, including the FSA's approval) or (2) purchases any shareoptions, warrants or other financial instruments, the exercise of which would result in the person acquiring control or any other changes in control. |
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Controllers- change in information provided by a UK domestic firm. |
(1) Details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed (2) An explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and (3) The correct information. |
After submitting a notification under SUP 11.4.2 R8or SUP 11.4.2A R and until the change in control occurs, the firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that information provided by the controller or proposed controller is false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular. |
Immediately. |
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Controllers- change in notification has taken place - notification by firm. |
The fact that the change in control has taken place or that there are grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place. |
A change in control previously notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.4 Ror taking place; or the firm having grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.8 |
14 days of the change in control or having grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place. |
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Controllers- changes in the circumstances of existing controllers. |
The fact of: (1) a controller, or any entity subject to his control, being the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; |
The firm becoming aware of: (1) a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; |
Immediately. |
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(2) a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; |
(2) a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; |
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(3) a corporate controller undergoing a substantial change or series of changes in its governing body; |
(3) a corporate controller undergoing a substantial change or series of changes in its governing body; |
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(4) a controller, who is authorised in another EEA State as an MiFID investment firm24 or BCD credit institution or under the Insurance Directives or the Insurance Mediation Directive, ceasing to be so authorised (registered in the case of an IMD insurance intermediary).8 24 |
(4) a controller, who is authorised in another EEA State as an MiFID investment firm24 or BCD credit institution or under the Insurance Directives or the Insurance Mediation Directive, ceasing to be so authorised (registered in the case of an IMD insurance intermediary).8 24 |
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(a) the name of the person (b) the nature of the close links (c) if the close link is with a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and (d) if the close links is with an individual, his date and place of birth. |
The firm becoming aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person. |
As soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after the firm becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked or if the firm has elected to report monthly, within 15 business days of the end of each month (see SUP 11.9.4 R).15 |
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The notification should give details of the appointed representative and the regulated activities which the firm is, or intends to, carry on through the appointed representative, including: (1) the name of the firm's new appointed representative (if the appointed representative is a body corporate, this is its registered name) (2) any trading name under which the firm's new appointed representative carries on a regulated activity in that capacity; (3) a description of the regulated activities which the appointed representative is permitted or required to carry on and for which the firm has accepted responsibility. |
A firm appointing an appointed representative. |
(1) (if the appointment covers insurance mediation activities and the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on such activities in another capacity) before; or14 (2) if the firm appoints a tied agent and the tied agent is not included in the Register (see SUP 12.4.11 R), before; or26 (3)27 (otherwise) ten business days after;14 the appointed representative begins to carry on regulated activities under the contract.14 14 26 |
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Appointed representative - extension of scope of appointment to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time.14 |
That fact.14 |
Extension of scope of appointment to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time and the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity.14 |
Before the appointed representative begins to carry on insurance mediation activities under the contract.14 |
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Appointed representatives - commencing as tied agent. |
That fact. |
Change of scope of tied agent's appointment. |
Notification must be made prior to tied agent acting. |
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Appointed representatives- change in other 14information. |
The information that has changed. |
A change being made to other14 information provided under SUP 12.7.1 R or the firm becoming aware of the change. 14 |
Ten business days of a change being made, or if later, as soon as it becomes aware of the change. |
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Appointed representatives- belief that appointment conditions not met. |
The fact that the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the appointment conditions are not being met; and: (a) the steps the firm proposes to take to rectify the matter; and (b) the date of the termination of the contract with the appointed representative. |
The firm having reasonable grounds for believing that the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R, 14SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R14 are not being satisfied. The SUP 12.4.2 R conditions are that: 14 |
As soon as the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the approval conditions have not been met. |
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(1) the appointment does not prevent the firm from satisfying and continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions; |
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(2) the threshold conditionsrepresentative: (a) is solvent; (b) is suitable to act for the firm in that capacity; (c) has no close links which would be likely to prevent the effective supervision of the appointed representative by the firm; and |
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(3) the firm has adequate: (a) controls over the appointed representative'sregulated activities for which the firm has responsibility (see SYSC 3.1); and (b) resources to monitor and enforce compliance by the appointed representative with the relevant requirements applying to the regulated activities for which the firm is responsible and with which the appointed representative is required to comply under its contract with the firm (see SUP 12.5.3 G (2)). |
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The SUP 12.4.6 Rconditions are that: On a continuing basis the firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the appointed representative is suitable to act for the firm in that capacity (having regard, in particular, to other persons connected with the appointed representative who will be, or who are, directly responsible for its activities). |
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If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent the notification requirements in SUP 12.7 apply to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative. |
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If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent the notification requirements in SUP 12.8 apply to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative. |
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Appointed representatives- termination of appointment. |
(1) Written notice of the notification by the firm or the appointed representative (2) The reason for the termination or amendment, if the termination or amendment is due to misconduct or the appointed representative is resigning while under investigation by the firm, the FSA, another regulator, a clearing house, an exchange, a designated professional body, or a government body or agency (3) If relevant, details of action taken by the firm and, if applicable, its outcome. |
Either the firm or the appointed representative notifying the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained in or referred to in SUP 12.5.14 |
Ten business days after the date of the decision to terminate or so amend the contract or, if later, as soon as the firm becomes aware that the contract is to be or has been terminated or amended. |
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Appointed representatives- termination of appointment. |
(1) Written notice of the notification by the firm or theappointed representative (2) The reason for the termination or amendment, if the termination or amendment is due to misconduct or the appointed representative is resigning while under investigation by the firm, the FSA, another regulator, a clearing house, an exchange, a designated professional body, or a government body or agency (3) If relevant, details of action taken by the firm and, if applicable, its outcome. |
Either the firm or the appointed representative notifying the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained in or referred to in SUP 12.5.14 |
Ten business days after the date of the decision to terminate or so amend the contract or, if later, as soon as the firm becomes aware that the contract is to be or has been terminated or amended. |
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Appointed representatives- termination of appointment -approved persons. |
Approved persons Form C Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions (see SUP 10 Annex 6). |
An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative. |
Seven business days after an approved person ceases to perform a controlled function. |
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Appointed representatives- termination of appointment -approved persons (qualified withdrawal). |
The fact of the qualified withdrawal. |
An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative and the firm becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggest, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of that approved person (qualified defined in SUP 10.13.7 R (2); approved person dismissed, approved person under investigation, approved person's fitness and propriety affected). |
As soon as practicable guidance (in SUP 10.13.8 Gstates, where possible, within one business day). |
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(a) activities which it seeks to carry on through branch (b) other information as specified in SUP 13.5.1 R. |
Before establishing a branch. |
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Intention to provide cross border services into another EEA State. |
(a) identifies activities which it seeks to carry on by way of provision of cross border services (b) other information as specified in SUP 13.5.2 R. |
Decision to provide cross border services into another EEA State. |
Before providing cross border services. |
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Changes to branches (Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive and Banking Consolidation Directive). 5 26 |
Details of proposed change. |
Change in circumstances within control of UK firm. |
Before making change. |
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Details of proposed change. |
Change in circumstances, including using for the first time or ceasing to use a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established. |
Before making change. |
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Changes to relevant EEA details of branches (Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives). |
Details of proposed change. |
Change in circumstances within control of UK firm. |
Before making change. |
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Changes to relevant UK details of branches (Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives). |
Details of proposed change. |
Change arising from circumstances within control of UK firm. |
At least one month before change is effected. |
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Details of change. |
Changes to branch arising from circumstances beyond control of a UK firm. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
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Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive:26 Change in program of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right. 26 |
Details of proposed change. |
Change in programme of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right. |
(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: before making change. (b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as practicable (whether before or after change). |
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Firms passporting under MiFID (cross-border services): Change in program of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right. |
Details of proposed change. |
Change in activities to be carried on, using for the first time or ceasing to use a tied agent. |
Before making change. |
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Firms passporting under Insurance Directive (providing cross border services) - change in relevant details. |
Details of proposed change. |
Change in relevant details. |
(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: at least one month before proposed change (b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as reasonably practicable. |
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Intention of incoming Treaty firm to carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. |
Matters relevant to the notice as indicated in SUP 13A.3.6 G. |
Intention to carry on a regulated activity. |
At least seven days in advance. |
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Change to branch details in circumstances within control of the firm (firms passporting under the UCITS Directive and Banking Consolidation Directive).5 26 |
Details of proposed change. |
Change to branch details. |
Before making the change. |
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Change to branch details in circumstances within control of the firm (firms passporting under the Insurance Directives). |
Details of proposed change. |
Change to branch details. |
Before making the change. |
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Changes to branch details arising from circumstances beyond control of incoming EEA firm. |
Change to branch details. |
Details of the change. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
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Changes to UKbranch details for EEA MiFID investment firms. |
Details of proposed change. |
Changes to branch details. |
Before making the change. |
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Changes to cross border services (firms passporting under the UCITS Directive).26 |
Details of proposed change. |
Changes to cross border services. |
(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: before making change (b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as reasonably practicable. |
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Incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID. |
Details of the proposed change to cross-border services. |
Change in details. |
Before the change. |
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Incoming EEA firm - cancelling qualification for authorisation. |
Incoming firm ceased, or intends to cease, to carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom. |
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Notifications - matters having a serious regulatory impact. |
The fact of any of the trigger events occurring. |
Becoming aware or having information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future: |
Immediately. |
|
(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; |
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(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; |
||||
(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to its customers and which could result in serious detriment to a customer of the firm; or |
||||
(4) any matter in respect of the firm which could result in serious financial consequences to the financial system or to other firms. |
||||
Notifications - anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would expect notice. |
The matters specified in 'trigger events' which must be disclosed appropriately. |
A firm must deal with its regulators in an open and co-operative way, and must disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. (Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.7 G ) Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of: |
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter. (SUP 15.7.2 G ) The period of notice will depend on the event, although the FSA expects a firm to discuss relevant matters with it at an early stage, before making any internal or external commitments. (SUP 15.3.9 G). |
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(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to: (a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm's group, or a new branch (whether in the UK or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; (c) commencing the provision of a new type of product or service (whether in the UK or overseas); (d) ceasing to undertake a regulated activity or ancillary activity, or significantly reducing the scope of such activities; or (e) entering into, or significantly changing, a material outsourcing arrangement; or (f) a substantial change or a series of changes in the governing body of an overseas firm (other than an incoming firm); or (g) any change to the firm's prudential category or sub-category, as used in the Interim Prudential sourcebooks and the Supervision manual and on which guidance is given in SUP App 1; |
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(2) any significant failure in the firm's systems or controls, including those reported to the firm by the firm's auditor; |
||||
(3) any action which a firm proposes to take which would result in a material change in its capital adequacy or solvency, including, but not limited to: |
||||
(a) any action which would result in a material change in the firm's financial resources or financial resources requirement; or |
||||
(b) a material change resulting from the payment of a special or unusual dividend or the repayment of share capital or a subordinated loan; or |
||||
(c) for firms which are subject to the rules on consolidated financial supervision, any proposal under which another group company may be considering such an action; or |
||||
(d) significant trading or non-trading losses (whether recognised or unrecognised). |
||||
Notifications - breaches of rules and other requirements in or under the Act. |
(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence; (2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and (3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future 24potential occurrence. 24 |
Becoming aware, or having information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future as regards the firm, any of its directors, officers, employees, approved persons, appointed representatives: , or tied agents24 (a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle) or Statement of Principle; or (b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies); (c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act. 24 |
Immediately. |
|
Notifications - civil, criminal or disciplinary proceedings against a firm. |
Details of the matter and an estimate of the likely financial consequences, if any. |
(1) Civil proceedings being brought against the firm and the amount of the claim being significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or |
Immediately. |
|
(2) any action being brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or |
||||
(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions being imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade body (other than the FSA) or the firm becoming aware that one of those bodies has started an investigation into its affairs: or |
||||
(4) the firm being prosecuted for, or convicted of, any offence involving fraud or dishonesty, or any penalties being imposed on it for tax evasion; or |
||||
(5) if it is an OPS firm, which is a trustee, being removed as trustee by a court order. |
||||
Notifications - Fraud, errors and other irregularities. |
All relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware. |
The following events arising, if significant: (1) the firm becoming aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or |
Immediately. |
|
(2) the firm becoming aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or |
||||
(3) the firm considering that any person, whether or not employed by it, acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or |
||||
(4) the firm identifying irregularities in its accounting or other records, whether or not there is evidence of fraud; or |
||||
(5) the firm suspecting that one of its employees may be guilty of serious misconduct concerning his honesty or integrity and which is committed with the firm's regulated activities or ancillary activites. |
||||
Notifications - insolvency, bankruptcy and winding up. |
The fact of the event. |
(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm; |
Immediately. |
|
(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies; |
||||
(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm; |
||||
(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors; |
||||
(5) an application for the appointment of an administrator or trustee in bankruptcy to the firm; |
||||
(6) the appointment of a receiver to the firm (whether an administrative receiver or receiver appointed over particular property): or |
||||
(7) an application for an interim order against the firm under section 252 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (or, in Northern Ireland, section 227 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989); or |
||||
(8) if the firm is a sole trader: (a) an application for a sequestration order; or (b) the presentation of a petition for bankruptcy; or |
||||
(9) anything equivalent to (1) to (8) above in respect of the firm in a jurisdiction outside the UK. |
||||
Any matter likely to be of material concern in relation to the FSA which may have arisen in relation to: |
Details of the matters arisen. |
The Society becomes aware. |
Immediately. |
|
(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or21 |
||||
(2) underwriting agents; or21 |
||||
(3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.21 |
||||
Commencement, continuation and cessation of relevant investigations and disciplinary proceedings |
Commencement, continuation and cessation of relevant investigations and disciplinary proceedings listed in SUP 15.3.24 D and SUP 15.3.25 D. |
Commencement of proceedings. |
Not specified. |
|
Notifications - notified person - overseas firm which is not an incoming firm. |
Form F Changes in notified person (see SUP 15 Ann 2 R) However, if the person is an approved person, notification giving details of his name, the approved person's FSA individual reference number and the position to which the notification relates, is sufficient. |
Any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions: (a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the person for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the UK; (b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility for UK operations; (c) for a bank: the two or more persons who effectively direct its business in accordance with SYSC 4.2.2 R21; (d) for an insurer: the authorised UK representative. 21 |
30 business days. |
|
Notifications - change in name. |
Details of the proposed new name and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name. |
A change in:(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); |
Reasonable advance notice. |
|
(2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the UK or with or for clients in the UK. |
||||
Notifications - change in address. |
Details of the new address and the date of the change. |
A change in any of the following addresses: (1) the firm's principal place of business in the UK; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address. |
Reasonable advance notice. |
|
Notifications - change in legal status. |
The fact of the proposed change in liability. |
A proposed change in a firm's legal status which limits the liability of any of its members or partners. This includes: |
Reasonable advance notice. |
|
(1) re-registration as a limited liability company of a company incorporated with unlimited liability; and |
||||
Notifications - other regulators. |
The fact of becoming subject to or ceasing to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). |
A firm becoming subject to or ceasing to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). |
Immediately. |
|
Notification - inaccurate, false or misleading information. |
(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and (3) the correct information. |
A firm becoming aware, or having information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular. |
Immediately If the information required cannot be submitted with the notification (because it is not immediately available), it must instead be submitted as soon as possible afterwards. |
|
Notification - management of occupational pension scheme assets. |
The fact of receiving the request or instruction. |
A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme receiving a request or instruction from a trustee which it knows or on substantial grounds suspects or has cause reasonably to suspect is at material variance with the trustee's duties. |
As soon as reasonably practical . |
|
Administration of individual pension accounts. |
If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, notify the FSA. |
Event of beginning or ceasing to administer individual pension accounts. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
|
Insurers' commission clawback. |
As set out in SUP 15.8.3 R. |
Any amount of commission due from an intermediary remaining outstanding for four months after date when insurer gave notice to the intermediary that (a) relevant premium had not been paid or (b) that cancellation or overpayment has occurred. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
|
Operating a bureau de change . |
That the firm intends to operate a bureau de change. |
Intending to operate a bureau de change. |
||
Operating a bureau de change. |
That the firm has ceased to operate a bureau de change. |
Ceasing to operate a bureau de change. |
As soon as reasonably practicable.6 |
|
Delegation by UCITS management company. |
The fact that a function of the UCITS management company has been delegated together with (a) the identity of the party to whom the function has been delegated and (b) the period during which the delegation will apply. |
The delegation of a function by a UCITS management company. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
|
CTF provider status.13 |
The fact of the firm beginning or ceasing to hold itself out as a CTF provider.13 |
Firm beginning or ceasing to hold itself out as a CTF provider.13 |
As soon as reasonably practicable.13 |
|
Engagement of third party administrator.13 |
Third party administrator engaged.13 |
As soon as reasonably practicable.13 |
||
Intention to offer HMRC allocated CTFs.2413 24 |
Whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs.2413 24 |
Becoming a CTF provider.13 |
As soon as reasonably practicable.13 |
|
Intention to provide stakeholder CTF.13 |
Whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTFs.13 |
Becoming a CTF provider.13 |
As soon as reasonably practicable.13 |
|
Default by counterparty on its obligations in a transaction of a type specified in SUP 15.8.9 R. |
The fact of the default. |
Default by counterparty on its obligations in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction. |
Immediately. |
|
Being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
The fact of being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
Being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
Immediately.11 |
|
Reasonable likelihood of becoming or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
Reasonable likelihood of becoming or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
Reasonable likelihood of becoming or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.11 |
Immediately.11 |
|
Reporting - change of accounting reference date. |
The fact of a change in accounting reference date. |
A change in accounting reference date. |
If extending its accounting reference period, before the previous accounting reference date If shortening its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - annual controller report - every firm except: (1) an ICVC; (2) an incoming EEA firm; (3) an incoming Treaty firm; (4) a non-directive friendly Society; (5) a partnership; (6) a sole trader; (7) a service company; (8) a UCITS qualifier. |
If the firm is not aware: (a) that it has any controllers; or (b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report; or If the above does not apply, the report must contain a list of all the controllers as at the firm's accounting reference date of which the firm is aware and, for each such controller, state: (a) its name; (b) the percentage of voting power in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it is entitled to exercise or control the exercise of, whether alone or with any associate; (c) the percentage of shares in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it holds, whether alone or with any associate; (d) if the controller is a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and (e) if the controller is an individual, his date and place of birth. This information may be provided in the form of a group organisation chart. |
Annually from the accounting reference date If a firm is a friendly society or a building society, then it is required to submit a report only if it is aware that it has a controller. |
Four months. |
|
Reporting - annual close links report - every firm except: (1) an ICVC; (2) an incoming EEA firm; (3) an incoming Treaty firm; (4) a non-directive friendly society; (5) a partnership; (6) a sole trader; (7) a service company; (8) a UCITS qualifier. |
If a firm is not aware: (a) that it has close links; or (b) of any material changes to the details since the last report; then confirmation of this If the above does not apply, the report must contain a list of all persons with whom the firm has close links as at the firm's accounting reference date of which it is aware, and for each such person state: (a) its name; (b) the nature of the close links; (c) if the close link is with a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and (d) if the close link is with an individual, his date and place of birth. The information may be provided in the form of a group organisation chart. |
Annually from the accounting reference date If a firm is an unincorporated friendly society, then it is only required to submit a report if it is aware that it has close links. |
Four months. |
|
Reporting - compliance reports -bank- list of overseas regulators. |
List of all overseas regulators for each legal entity in the firm's group. |
Annually from the accounting reference date. |
Six months. |
|
Reporting - compliance reports -bank-authorised entities in the firm's group. |
Organogram showing the authorised entities in the firm's group. |
Annually from the accounting reference date. |
Six months. |
|
Reporting - compliance reports - trusteeof an AUT |
In relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: |
Quarterly (the quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December). |
One month. |
|
(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation of too few units or in the cancellation of too many units; and (ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 and CIS App 1; |
||||
(b) price unit in the AUT in accordance with COLL 6 and CIS 4 for single-priced AUTs and CIS 15 for dual-priced AUTs, where the pricing error was: |
||||
(ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a unit, and the trustee did not consider the manager's controls to be adequate; unless the failure was an isolated incident. |
||||
Reporting - compliance reports -depositary of an ICVC. |
In relation to the authorised corporate director of each ICVC for which it is a depositary, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, that the authorised corporate director had failed (materially or otherwise) to: |
Quarterly (the quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December). |
One month. |
|
(a) arrange for the issueor cancellation of shares in the ICVC when the authorised corporate director should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation of too few shares or in the cancellation of too many shares; and (ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 |
||||
(b) price shares in the ICVC in accordance with COLL 6 and CIS 4 for ICVCs, where the pricing error was: (i) greater than 0.5% of the price of a share; or (ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a share, and the depositary did not consider the authorised corporate director's controls to be adequate; unless the failure was an isolated incident. |
||||
Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms. |
Annual accounts of each occupational pension scheme in respect of which the firm is acting. |
Annually. |
Seven months after the end of the scheme year. |
|
Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms. |
Audited annual accounts of each OPS collective investment scheme in respect of which the firm is acting. |
Annually. |
Seven months after the end of the scheme year. |
|
Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms. |
Any change in the date of commencement of the scheme year of an OPS or OPS collective investment scheme, in respect of which the firm is acting, not less than 15 business days before the date on which such a change is to become effective. |
15 business days before the date on which such a change is to become effective. |
||
Reporting financial reports -UK bank. |
Annual report and audited accounts. |
Annually. |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Adequate information on capital adequacy (unconsolidated solo consolidated) BSD3. |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a ,bank which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Adequate information on capital adequacy (consolidated) BSD3 The requirement to submit consolidated reports applies only to a bank which calculates its capital requirements on a consolidated basis. |
Half yearly. All consolidated reports required on a half yearly basis must be prepared as at the end of June and December of each year. |
20 business days (22 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
See IPRU(BANK) GN 3.3.13R(2) and IPRU(BANK) CS 4. |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Analysis of large exposures (Unconsolidated, solo consolidated) LE2 or LE3.4 |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a bank, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days after quarter end (14 business days if LE3 submitted electronically) |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Analysis of large exposures (Consolidated) LE2 or LE3 The requirement to submit consolidated reports applies only to a bank which calculates its capital requirements on a consolidated basis. See IPRU(BANK) GN 3.3.13R(2) and IPRU(BANK) CS 4.4 |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a bank, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
20 business days after quarter end (24 business days if LE3 submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Adequate information on holdings of credit and financial institutions' and non-financial companies' capital instruments (Unconsolidated, solo consolidated) M1 This report is only required from a bank which reports either on a solo or unconsolidated basis and (i) has been granted a trading book concession as explained in IPRU(BANK) CA 10.3; or (ii) has qualifying holdings in non-financial companies as explained in IPRU(BANK) CA 10.4. |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a bank, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Adequate information on holdings of credit and financial institutions' and non-financial companies' capital instruments (Consolidated) M1. |
Half yearly. All consolidated reports required on a half yearly basis must be prepared as at the end of June and December of each year. |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
This report is only required from a bank which reports either on a solo or unconsolidated basis and: (i) has been granted a trading book concession as explained in IPRU(BANK) CA 10.3; or (ii) has qualifying holdings in non-financial companies as explained in IPRU(BANK) CA 10.4. |
||||
The requirement to submit consolidated reports applies only to a bank which calculates its capital requirements on a consolidated basis. See IPRU(BANK) GN 3.3.13R(2) and IPRU(BANK) CS 4. |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank |
Adequate information on sterling stock liquidity (SLR1). |
Monthly. |
6 business days after second Wednesday of the month This report must be prepared as at the second Wednesday of each month. See IPRU(BANK) LS 5.2(2) regarding submission of an SLR1 on breach of various limits. |
|
A bank is not required to submit both the SLR1 and LR A bank which monitors its liquidity according to the maturity mismatch approach as set out in IPRU(BANK) LM must submit the LR. |
||||
A bank which monitors its liquidity according to the maturity mismatch approach as set out in IPRU(BANK) LS must submit the SLR1. |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Adequate information on mismatch liquidity LR A bank is not required to submit both the SLR1 and LR A bank which monitors its liquidity according to the maturity mismatch approach as set out in IPRU(BANK) LM must submit the LR. |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a bank, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days after period end (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
A bank which monitors its liquidity according to the maturity mismatch approach as set out in IPRU(BANK) LS must submit the SLR1. |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
List of companies in the bank's consolidated large exposure reporting. |
Annually. |
6 months after the firm's accounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -UK bank. |
Annual confirmation that all companies included in solo consolidation meet the criteria for such consolidation as set out in IPRU(BANK) CS 9.2. |
Annually. |
6 months after the firm's accounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -EEA bank, other than one with permission only for cross border services. |
Adequate information on mismatch liquidity (excluding deposit concentration) LR (excluding Part 5). |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a bank, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days after period end (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -bank established outside the EEA. |
Analysis of profits, large exposures, balance sheet, off balance sheet items and bad and doubtful debt provisions B7. |
Half yearly. Period ends are end of June and December each year. |
10 business days after period end (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -bank established outside the EEA. |
Adequate information on mismatch liquidity LR. |
Quarterly. Reports required on a quarterly basis must be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year, except that a long-term insurance business, which submits the BT report to the Bank of England monthly, must prepare the Form LR (Adequate information on mismatch liquidity) as at the end of February, May, August and November each year. |
10 business days after period end (12 business days if submitted electronically). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Adequate information on group balance sheet, analysed between society and subsidiary undertakings MFS1 - (Table A). |
Monthly. |
9 business days after month end (largest societies) 12 business days after month end (other societies). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Adequate information on society's balance sheet and primary business transactions MFS1 - (Tables B to G). |
Monthly. |
7 business days after month end (largest societies) 10 business days after month end (other societies). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Largest building societies (see SUP 16.7.17 RNote 2): |
Monthly. |
7 business days after month end (largest societies) 10 business days after month end (other societies). |
|
Sectoral breakdown of the society's balance sheet MFS1 SUP. |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Adequate information on balance sheets and primary business transactions of society's subsidiary undertakings accepting deposits and/or lending MFS2. |
Monthly. |
7 business days after month end (largest societies) 10 business days after month end (other societies). |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Analysis of interest rate risk gap. |
Monthly. |
15 business days after month end. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Adequate information on balance sheet, income and expenditure, capital, lending quality, large exposures and maturities for the society and its subsidiary undertakings, together with relevant expected and likely out-turns QFS1. |
Quarterly. |
18 business days after society's financial quarter end. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Largest building societies (see SUP 16.7.17 R Note 2):Sectoral and other breakdown of assets and liabilities, gilt maturities, and derivative contracts QFS2. |
Quarterly. |
11 business days after calendar quarter end. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -building society. |
Adequate information on balance sheet, income and expenditure, the range and volume of activities undertaken by the society, its subsidiary undertakings, and where relevant, its participating interests AFS1. |
Annually. |
2 months after society's accounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -service companies. |
Annual audited financial statements. |
Annually. |
6 months after the firm'saccounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) -lead regulated firm. |
Annual audited financial statements. |
Annually. |
6 months after the firm'saccounting reference date. |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) |
Audited annual financial statements |
Annually |
3 months after the firm'saccounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Annual reporting statement |
Annually |
3 months after the firm'saccounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Annual reconciliation Every year a firm must submit: (a) a reconciliation and explanation of any differences between amounts shown in the balance sheet in the audited annual financial statements and the annual reporting statement (b) a reconciliation and explanation of any differences between the annual reporting statement and the monthly reporting statement prepared as at the same date |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Audited accounts of any subsidiary, unless the rules in this chapter require that subsidiary to submit accounts to the FSA |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Consolidated reporting statement (Only required for category A and B firms which are subject to the consolidation rules set out in IPRU(INV) 10-200R to 10-203R, and are not exempt from the consolidation rules under IPRU(INV) 10-200R(2) or IPRU(INV) 10-204R.) |
Half yearly |
1 month after period end |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) - solo A firm which was required to submit Form LEM1 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A firm which was required to submit Form LEM2 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A category A or B firm authorised after the commencement must submit Form LEM1. |
Quarterly |
15 business days after quarter end |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm |
Large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) - consolidated. A firm which was required to submit Form LEM1 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. |
Quarterly |
1 month after quarter end |
|
Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
A firm which was required to submit Form LEM2 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. |
|||
A category A or B firm authorised after the commencement must submit Form LEM1. |
||||
(Only required for category A and B firms which are subject to the consolidation rules set out in IPRU(INV) 10-200R - 10-203R, and are not exempt from the consolidation rules under IPRU(INV) 10-200R(2) or IPRU(INV) 10-204R) |
||||
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Category A or B firm or broad scope firm |
Monthly reporting statement |
Monthly |
15 business days after month end |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category C or D firm or arranger or venture capital firm |
Annual reporting statement |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Category C or D firm or arranger or venture capital firm |
Annual reconciliation Every year a firm must submit:(a) a reconciliation and explanation of any differences between amounts shown in the balance sheet in the audited annual financial statements and the annual reporting statement (b) a reconciliation and explanation of any differences between the annual reporting statement and the monthly reporting statement prepared as at the same date |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
|
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm(only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firmCategory C or D firm or arranger or venture capital firm |
Audited accounts of any , subsidiary unless the rules in this chapter require that subsidiary to submit accounts to the FSA |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
|
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Only for category C firm (as defined in the glossaries located in IPRU(INV) 10, which is subject to the consolidation rules set out IPRU(INV) 10-200R to 10-203R and are not exempt from the consolidation rules under IPRU(INV) 10-200R(2) or IPRU(INV) 10-204R |
Consolidated reporting statement |
Half yearly |
1 month from period end |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Category C firm |
Large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) - solo A firm which was required to submit Form LEM1 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A firm which was required to submit Form LEM2 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A firm authorised after the commencement must submit Form LEM1. |
Quarterly |
15 business days after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category C firm (as defined in the glossaries located in IPRU(INV) 10, which is subject to the consolidation rules set out in IPRU(INV) 10-200R - 10-203R and are not exempt from the consolidation rules under IPRU(INV) 10-200R(2) or IPRU(INV) 10-204R |
Large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) - consolidated A firm which was required to submit Form LEM1 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A firm which was required to submit Form LEM2 in the relevant period immediately prior to commencement must continue to do so. A firm authorised after the commencement must submit Form LEM1. |
Quarterly |
1 month after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Category C or D firm or arranger or venture capital firm |
Quarterly reporting statement |
Quarterly |
15 business days after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the) firm Adviser or local, or a traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60R (4) Sole traders only |
Solvency statement |
Annually |
2 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Adviser or local, or a traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60R (4) Partnership and bodies corporate only |
Audited annual financial statements |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV) applies to the firm) Adviser or local, or a traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60R (4) |
Audited accounts of any subsidiary unless the rules in this chapter require that subsidiary to submit accounts to the FSA |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G |
Reporting - financial reports -securities and futures firm, except a lead regulated firm (only applies to oil market participants if IPRU(INV)) applies to the firm)MiFID investment firm,24 which is a sole trader or a partnership formed under the laws of England and Wales 24 |
Solvency statement for the sole trader or each partner |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports - investment management firmsExcept a lead regulated firm or an OPS firm or a local authority |
Annual Financial Return |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports -investment management firms |
Annual accounts |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports -investment management firms Individuals in partnership Except a lead regulated firm or an OPS firm or a local authority |
Annual solvency statement |
Annually |
4 months after the firm'saccounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports -investment management firms Firms subject to a Liquid Capital Requirement as set out in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(1)(a) Except a lead regulated firm or an OPS firm |
Quarterly Financial Return |
Quarterly |
1 month after the firm's quarter end |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports -investment management firms ISD firms (defined in the Glossary of IPRU(INV) 5 subject to the Own Funds Requirement of Euro 730,000 as set out in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(1)(b) Except a lead regulated firm or an OPS firm or a local authority |
Monthly Financial Return A firm need not prepare a Monthly Financial Return as at the same date as a Quarterly Financial Return (see Note 4 ofSUP 16.7.36 R) |
Monthly |
1 month after the month end |
SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R |
Reporting - financial reports -investment management firms. Except a lead regulated firm or an OPS firm or a local authority |
Why the report cannot be submitted to the FSA on time and the date by which it will submit the report to the FSA |
Having reason to believe that it will be unable to submit an annual. quarterly or monthly financial return by the dates specified in the Supervision manual. |
As soon as it has reason to believe it will be unable to submit by the specified date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm, a Category A1 firm a Category B1 firm or a lead regulated firm |
Annual questionnaire |
Annually |
2 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Annual financial statements The annual financial statements must include all reports for which table SUP 16.7.45 Rspecifies a monthly or quarterly frequency |
Annually |
4 months after the firm'saccounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Audited consolidated statutory accounts Only required from a firm if it is a holding company or if one of its controllers is a company. |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Annual reconciliationEvery year a firm must submit a reconciliation of the amounts shown in the balance sheet in the annual financial statements with the amounts shown in the balance sheet in the last monthly or quarterly financial statements. The reconciliation must be submitted with the firm's annual financial statements. |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13A (Balance sheet) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13Bi/ii (Profit and loss) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: MonthlyCategory B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other :firm Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to managing investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13Ci (Statement of own funds) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other :firm Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other :firm 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13Cii (Statement of own funds) (Unincorporated firms only) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to managing investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports - except a small personal investment firm or a personal investment firmlead regulated firm |
Form 13D (Financial resources test -current assets) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13E (Financial resources test - expenditure firm) Category A1 firm, Category A2 firm with permission to manage investments, or a Category A network: Form 13Ei in SUP 16 Ann 7 (section 3) Category A2 firm without permission to manage investments, a Category A3 firm: Form 13Eii in SUP 16 Ann 7 (section 3) Category B1, B2 or B3 firm: Form 13E in SUP 16 Ann 7 (section 4) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13F (Financial resources test - assets and liabilities) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firm except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm |
Form 13G (Financial resources test - position risk deductions) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: Monthly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month end |
Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: AnnualAny other firm: Quarterly |
Category B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers: 4 months after year endCategory B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end |
|||
Any other :firm 3 weeks after quarter end |
||||
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Sole traders only |
Form 13J (Sole trader solvency statement) |
Category A1 or B1 firm: MonthlyCategory B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers :Annual Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: Annual Any other firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 or B1 firm: 3 weeks after month endCategory B2 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers :4 months after year end Category B3 firm, which has less than 26 financial advisers and has permission to manage investments: 4 months after year end Any other firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Category A1, A2 or A3 firm If the firm is a member of a group and is subject to consolidated supervision as set out in IPRU(INV) 13.7.1 R to 13.7.2 R |
Consolidated financial resources return |
Quarterly |
3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Category A1, A2 or A3 firm |
Form CAD 13 |
Quarterly |
3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Category A1, A2 or A3 firm |
Form 13H (Restrictions of Financial Resources) |
Category A1 firm: monthly Category A2 or A3 firm: Quarterly |
Category A1 firm: 3 weeks after month end Category A2 or A3 firm: 3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Category A1, A2 or A3 firm |
Form 13I (Statement of large exposures) |
Quarterly |
3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms except a small personal investment firm or a lead regulated firm Category A1, A2 or A3 firm If the firm is a member of a group and is subject to consolidated supervision as set out in IPRU(INV) 13.7.1R to 13.7.2R |
Form 13I Consolidated statement of large exposures |
Quarterly |
3 weeks after quarter end |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firm - small personal investment firm |
Annual questionnaire |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.42 G to SUP 16.7.53 G |
Reporting - financial reports -personal investment firms - small personal investment firm If the firm is a holding company or one of its controllers is a company |
Audited consolidated annual financial statements The firm must submit the statutory accounts of the group to which it belongs |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.54 R |
Reporting - financial reports -authorised professional firm |
Annual questionnaireForm in SUP 16 Ann 9R |
Annually |
4 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.55 R |
Reporting - financial reports - The Society of Lloyd's |
Annual audited accounts |
Annually |
6 months after the Society'saccounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.55 R |
Reporting - financial reports - The Society of Lloyd's |
Annual Lloyd's Return |
Annually |
6 months after the Society'saccounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.55 R to SUP 16.7.56 R |
Reporting - financial reports - The Society of Lloyd's |
Syndicate returns |
Annually |
6 months after the Society'saccounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R |
Reporting - financial reports -Members' adviser |
Audited annual financial statements |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R |
Reporting - financial reports -Members' adviser |
Annual reporting statement |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R |
Reporting - financial reports -Members' adviser |
Annual reconciliation |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R |
Reporting - financial reports -Members' adviser |
Audited accounts of any subsidiary, unless the rules in this chapter require those subsidiaries to submit accounts to the FSA |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date |
SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R |
Reporting - financial reports -Members' adviser |
Quarterly reporting statement |
Quarterly |
15 business days after the quarter end |
SUP 16.7.62R to SUP 16.7.63R |
Reporting - financial reports -Credit union |
Form CQ - Key financial data |
Quarterly |
|
SUP 16.7.62R to SUP 16.7.63R |
Reporting - financial reports -Credit union |
Form CY - Extended financial data |
Annually |
|
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Annual report and audited accounts |
Annually |
3 months after the firm's accounting reference date1 |
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Form ELM-CA/LE - Unconsolidated reporting statement on capital adequacy |
Half-yearly |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically)1 |
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Form ELM-CA/LE - Consolidated reporting statement on capital adequacy |
Half-yearly |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically)1 |
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Form BSD3 - Consolidated reporting statement on capital adequacy in the case of ELM 7.3.2 R |
Half-yearly |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically)1 |
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Form ELM-CA/LE - Unconsolidated large exposures reporting statement |
Half-yearly |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically)1 |
SUP 16.7.64R to SUP 16.7.65R |
Reporting - financial reports -ELMI |
Form ELM-CA/LE - Consolidated large exposures reporting statement |
Half-yearly |
20 business days after period end (22 business days if submitted electronically)1 |
Reporting - persistency reports from insurers |
Persistency report. The report must report on every life policy which was promoted subject to rules in COB or COBS, is not a life policy of a type listed in 24SUP 16.8.13 R or SUP 16.8.14 R, and which: 24 24 |
Annually |
By 30 April each year |
|
(1) was effected by the firm submitting the report; or |
||||
(2) was effected by a member of the firm's group, which is not an authorised person, and in circumstances in which the firm submitting the report was responsible for promoting that life policy; or |
||||
(3) was effected by another firm, but is carried out by the firm submitting the report. |
||||
The report must be in the format of Forms 1R(1), (2) and (3) in SUP 16 Annex 6 R. |
||||
Details of appointed representatives. Every firm with a Part IV permission to advise on investments, arrange (bring about) deals in investments, make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets.2 |
A list of all the current appointed representatives of the firm as at the firm's accounting reference date. A report is not required if a firm has no appointed representatives as at the firm's accounting reference date and this is reflected in the relevant extract from the FSA Register.2 |
Annually |
Four months |
|
Verification of standing data items1012 |
Correction of inaccuracies in standing data1012 |
30 business days after accounting reference date10 |
10
||
Transaction reporting This applies to (a) a MiFID investment firm; (b) a third country investment firm; (c) a person who is the operator of an approved reporting mechanism or of a regulated market or MTF that is used by a firm to report transactions to the FSA; or (d) a firm acting in its capacity as a manager or operator of a collective investment undertaking, pension scheme, occupational pension scheme, a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme.23 23 23 |
A transaction report as specified in SUP 17.1.4 R, SUP 17.4.1 EU and SUP 17.4.2 R.23 23 |
Executing a transaction, subject to the exceptions in SUP 17.2.1 R and SUP 17.2.3 R.23 23 |
As quickly as possible and by not later than the close of the working day following the day upon which that transaction took place.23 23 |
|
Possible proposal for insurance business transfer scheme |
The broad outline of the scheme and its purpose |
When an insurance business transfer scheme is being considered |
As soon as reasonably practical |
|
The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the transferee's Home State regulator |
As set out in 18.2.26 G |
If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company |
Not specified |
|
The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the Host State regulator |
As set out in 18.2.28 G |
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, |
Not specified |
|
The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the Host State regulator |
Should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information. It would be helpful if a draft of the scheme report was also available. |
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, |
Not specified |
|
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, |
Not specified |
|||
Scheme report in a form approved by the FSA |
As set out in SUP 18.2.33 G |
Decision to apply to the court to approve an insurance business transfer scheme |
||
Fact of the independent expert producing a scheme report |
Independent expert appointed to produce a scheme report |
At an early stage |
||
Notice of the application to be sent to all policyholders of the parties. It may also be appropriate to give notice to others affected, in particular to: (1) reinsurers of the transferor where it is proposed that benefits or liabilities under their contracts should pass to the transferee (2) anyone with an interest in the policies being transferred who has notified the transferor of their interest. |
In addition to the notice it would normally be appropriate to include a statement setting out the terms of the scheme and containing a summary of the scheme report. |
Decision to apply to the court for approval of an insurance business transfer scheme (unless the court directs otherwise) |
At least six weeks before court hearing |
|
Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm - Margin of solvency below required level |
A plan for the restoration of a sound financial position including: (1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9); and (2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when it expects its margin of solvency to be adequately restored to the required margin of solvency |
The firm becoming aware that its margin of solvency has fallen below its required margin of solvency |
28 days |
|
Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm - Margin of solvency below guarantee fund |
A short term financial plan including: (1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9 and (2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when it expects its margin of solvency to be adequately restored to the guarantee fund |
The firm becoming aware that its margin of solvency has fallen below its guarantee fund |
14 days |
|
Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- ceasing to effect contracts of insurance |
A run-off plan including: (1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9); and (2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including where relevant, reasonable bonus expectations) will be met in full as they fall due |
The firm deciding to cease to effect new contracts of insurance |
28 days |
|
[deleted]20 20 |
[deleted]20 20 |
[deleted]20 20 |
[deleted]20 20 |
[deleted]20 20 |
Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- obligations on insurers which have previously submitted a scheme of operations |
Quarterly financial return: (a) a summary profit and loss account prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.7 R; (b) a summary balance sheet prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.8 R; and (c) a statement of solvency prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.9 R; and which must identify and explain differences between the actual results and the forecasts submitted in the scheme of operations |
The end of each quarter |
Not specified |
|
Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- obligations on insurers which have previously submitted a scheme of operations |
(a) Explanation of the nature of the departure and the reasons for it and provide revised forecast financial information in the scheme of operations for its remaining term; or (b) an amended scheme of operations and explanation of the amendments and the reasons for them |
Any matter which has either happened or is likely to happen and which represents a significant departure from the scheme of operations |
Promptly |