Related provisions for SYSC 19C.1.4
1 - 20 of 163 items.
To enable the FCA to be satisfied that the issuer and the proposed owner will comply with requirements imposed on the issuer or owner, as the case may be, by or under the RCB Regulations, the applicant should use the application form to provide relevant details of the proposed covered bond or programme and demonstrate how each of the requirements will be complied with.
In relation to registration of an issuer of regulated covered bonds, the FCA will need to be satisfied that the issuer's compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system has been adequate and does not give rise to any material cause for concern over the issuer's ability to issue regulated covered bonds in compliance with the RCB Regulations.
The risk factors which the FCA will take into account in assessing the issuer's and owner's compliance with Regulations 17(2)(d) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 23(2) (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) will include credit risk of the assets, concentration risk, market risk and counterparty risk.
The FCA expects the issuer to demonstrate, as part of showing that Regulations 17 (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations will be complied with, that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme which enable the views and interests of investors in the regulated covered bond to be taken account of in an appropriate and timely way by a suitably qualified, adequately resourced,
(1) The FCA expects legal advice to deal adequately with at least the following matters in relation to the actual or proposed arrangements:(a) whether the transfer of the assets to the owner would be upheld in the event of liquidation or administration, or similar collective insolvency proceedings, of the issuer or the transferor (if different from the issuer);(b) the risk of the transfer of an asset to the owner being re-characterised as the creation of a security interest;(c)
(1) The FCA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures (which
In considering whether a primary information provider satisfies the requirements of DTR 8.4.31 R, the FCA will consider, among other things, whether the primary information provider has in place appropriate measures to identify new and emerging risks which would be likely to prevent its compliance with DTR 8.4.11 R, DTR 8.4.19 R or DTR 8.4.20 R.
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must assess, monitor and periodically review:(a) the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management policy and of the arrangements, processes and techniques referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R;(b) the level of compliance by the authorised fund manager or the UK UCITS management company with the risk management policy and with those arrangements, processes and techniques referred
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
9In addition to the annual confirmation required to be included in a listed company's annual financial report under LR 9.8.4R (14), the FCA may request information from a listed company under LR 1.3.1 R (3) to confirm or verify that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 or a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 is being or has been complied with.
A listed company must ensure that the FCA is provided with up to date contact details of at least one appropriate person nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FCA in relation to the company's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules.
9A listed company must notify the FCA without delay if: (1) it no longer complies with LR 9.2.2G R; (2) it becomes aware that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by the controlling shareholder or any of its associates; or(3) it becomes aware that a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by a controlling
335(1) 5If an auditor expects that it will fail to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must no later than the end of the four month period in question:(a) notify the FCA that it expects that it will be unable to deliver a client assets report by the end of that period; and(b) ensure that the notification in (a) is accompanied by a full account of the reasons for its expected failure to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R.(2) If an auditor fails to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must promptly:(a)
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
5An auditor must:(1) deliver to a firm a draft of its client assets report such that the firm has an adequate period of time to consider the auditor’s findings and to provide the auditor with comments of the kind to which SUP 3.11.1 G refers; and(2) unless it is the auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R, deliver to the firm a copy of the final report at the same time as it delivers that report to the FCA in accordance with SUP 3.10.7 R.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.3R (1), COLL 11.6.3R (2), COLL 11.6.5R (1), COLL 11.6.5R (2) or COLL 11.6.5R (3) and has received written notice of any required approvals from the FCA, it must:(1) inform the master UCITS of those approvals; and(2) in the case of the required approvals received in respect of documents submitted under COLL 11.6.3 R (1) and COLL 11.6.5 R (2), take the necessary measures to comply
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
(1) 4Under the standard approach, the amount of eligible financial resources is equal to six months of operating costs.(2) Under the standard approach, the FCA5 assumes liquid financial assets are needed to cover the costs that would be incurred during an orderly wind-down of the UK recognised body'sexempt activities, while continuing to satisfy all the recognition requirements and complying with any other obligations under the Act (including the obligations to pay periodic fees
4The FCA5 would normally consider a UK recognised body to be failing the recognition requirements if it held financial resources less than the amount calculated under REC 2.3.9G (1)(a)(i) (in respect of UK RIEs). The FCA5 therefore expects a UK recognised body to hold an operational risk buffer of a sufficient amount in excess of this minimum, to ensure that it is at all times able to comply with its regulatory obligations.555
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its securities8 is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
1In identifying conflicts of interest, sponsors should also take into account3 circumstances that could:333(1) 3create a perception in the market that a sponsor may not be able to perform its functions properly; or4(2) 3compromise the ability of a sponsor to fulfil its obligations to the FCA in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
1When considering whether to cancel a sponsor's approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the sponsor; (2) the adequacy of the sponsor's systems and controls; (3) the sponsor's history of compliance with the listing rules; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected failure of the sponsor to meet (at
1When considering whether to cancel a primary information provider’s approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the primary information provider; (2) the adequacy of the primary information provider’s systems and controls; (3) the primary information provider’s history of compliance with DTR 8; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected