Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

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SUP 8.3.1GRP
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:1010(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.1010
SUP 8.3.1AGRP
Even if the conditions in section 138A(4)10 of the Act are satisfied, the appropriate regulator10will consider other relevant factors before giving a waiver.810102
SUP 8.3.2GRP
The appropriate regulator10 is required by section 138B10 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so (see SUP 8.6).1010
SUP 8.3.2AGRP
10The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
SUP 8.3.3AGRP
(1) 510The PRA’s7 preferred method of submission for waiver applications is by e-mail.10 The FCA’s preferred method of submission for waiver applications is through online submission via the FCA’s website at www.fca.org.uk.75(2) The form is available on the appropriate regulator's website.105510
SUP 8.3.4AGRP
10Firms or persons other than PRA-authorised persons should send applications for waivers or applications for variations of waivers to the FCA.
SUP 8.3.4BGRP
10PRA-authorised persons should send applications for waivers or applications for variations of waivers to: (1) the FCA in respect of rules in the FCA Handbook applicable to that PRA-authorised person; and(2) the PRA in respect of rules in the PRA Handbook.
SUP 8.3.5GRP
The appropriate regulator10 will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.106
SUP 8.3.5AGRP
The appropriate regulator10 will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The appropriate regulator10 will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the appropriate regulator10 in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3101010
SUP 8.3.6GRP
In some cases, the appropriate regulator10 may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The appropriate regulator10 may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.1010
SUP 8.3.7GRP
If the appropriate regulator10 decides not to give a waiver, it will give reasons for the decision.10
SUP 8.3.8GRP
A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the waiver. In doing so, a firm should give the appropriate regulator10 its reasons for withdrawing the application.10
SUP 8.3.9GRP
If the appropriate regulator10 believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.10
SUP 8.3.10GRP
Under section 138A(1) of the Act the appropriate regulator10 may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the appropriate regulator10 in exceptional circumstances where the appropriate regulator10 considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the appropriate regulator10 will inform the firms concerned that the waiver
SUP 8.3.13GRP
For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 138D10 of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.21010
INSPRU 3.2.4GRP
PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 provides that a derivative, quasi-derivative or stock lending transaction will only be an admissible asset if it is approved. This section sets out the criteria for determining when a derivative, quasi-derivative or stock lending transaction is approved for this purpose. INSPRU 3.2.5 R to INSPRU 3.2.35 R set out the criteria for derivatives and quasi-derivatives. INSPRU 3.2.36 R to INSPRU 3.2.41 R set
INSPRU 3.2.5RRP
For the purpose of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 (Admissible assets in insurance), and also in relation to permitted links,1 a derivative or quasi-derivative is approved if:(1) it is held for the purpose of efficient portfolio management (INSPRU 3.2.6 R to INSPRU 3.2.7 R) or reduction of investment risk (INSPRU 3.2.8 R to INSPRU 3.2.13 G);(2) it is covered (INSPRU 3.2.14 R to INSPRU 3.2.33 G); and(3) it is effected or issued:(a)
INSPRU 3.2.5AGRP
(1) PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.36 requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.16. If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved
INSPRU 3.2.12RRP
For the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.8 R, investment risk is the risk that the assets held by a firm:(1) (where they are admissible assets held by the firm to cover its technical provisions) might not be:(a) of a value at least equal to the amount of those technical provisions as required by PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Technical Provisions, 46; or(b) of appropriate safety, yield and marketability as required by PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance
INSPRU 3.2.17RRP
An obligation to pay a monetary amount (whether or not falling in INSPRU 3.2.16 R) is covered if:(1) the firm holds admissible assets or permitted links1 that are sufficient in value so that the firm reasonably believes that following reasonably foreseeable adverse variations (relying solely on cashflows from, or from realising, those assets) it could pay the monetary amount in the right currency when it falls due; or(2) the obligation to pay the monetary amount is offset by a
INSPRU 3.2.34RRP
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is on approved terms only if the firm reasonably believes that it could, in all reasonably foreseeable circumstances and under normal market conditions, readily enter into a further transaction with the counterparty or a third party to close out the derivative or quasi-derivative at a price not less than the value attributed to it by the firm, taking into account any valuation adjustments or reserves established
INSPRU 3.2.35RRP
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is capable of valuation only if the firm:(1) is able to value it with reasonable accuracy on a reliable basis in compliance with PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation, 3.16; and(2) reasonably believes that it will be able to do so throughout the life of the transaction.
INSPRU 3.2.35AGRP
The purpose of INSPRU 3.2.34 R and INSPRU 3.2.35 R is to ensure the appropriate application of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation,6 to derivatives and quasi-derivatives effected or issued off-market with an approved counterparty.
INSPRU 3.2.36RRP
(1) For the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 (Admissible assets in insurance), a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) 3is approved if:(a) the assets lent are admissible assets;(b) , the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised,
INSPRU 3.2.39GRP
For the purposes of assessing adequate quality in INSPRU 3.2.38R (3), reference should be made to the criteria for credit risk loss mitigation set out in INSPRU 2.1.16 R. The valuation rules in PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation6 apply for the purpose of determining the value of both collateral received, and the securities transferred, by the firm. In addition, where collateral takes the form of assets transferred, under the
SUP 10C.9.1GRP
SUP 10C.9 deals with how the FCA's senior managers4 regime for SMCR firms4 interacts with the PRA's one.
SUP 10C.9.2GRP
Both the FCA and the PRA may specify a function as a designated senior management function in relation to a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.3GRP
If a person's job for a firm involves performing: (1) an FCA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10C.9 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual a
SUP 10C.9.4GRP
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.5GRP
The FCA and PRA have coordinated their approved person regimes to reduce the amount of overlap.
SUP 10C.9.6GRP
(1) SUP 10C.9.8R applies when a firm is seeking approval from the PRA for a candidate to perform a PRA controlled function and the intention is that the candidate will also perform what would otherwise be an FCA governing function once the PRA gives its approval. SUP 10C.9.8R works by disapplying that FCA governing function.(2) Where (1) applies, the activities within that FCA governing function are included in the PRA controlled function for which the person has approval. Chapter
SUP 10C.9.8RRP
A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. A4 is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because 4approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.4

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.4

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function4.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function4. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function4 applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function4.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function4.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management functions4 after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up their old job when A4 comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes, on A’s first appointment.6

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not cease to have approval for6 the PRA's chief risk function or permanently cease to perform6 what would otherwise have been the executive director function4 just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chair4 of the governing body and chair4 of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chair4 of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm.4 A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function4.

3

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note 1: The relevant PRA rules can be found in the parts of the PRA Rulebook listed in SUP 10C.9.6G.4

Note 2: Where one of the examples in this table includes someone being chief risk or finance officer or chair of the governing body, the example assumes that the firm is of a type for which that function is a PRA-designated senior management function.4
SUP 10C.9.11GRP
The PRA cannot give its approval for the performance of a PRA-designated senior management function without the consent of the FCA. The firm does not need to apply to the FCA for that consent.
SUP 10C.9.12GRP
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions), the FCA may arrange with the PRA that, in agreed cases, the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.
SUP 8.6.1GRP
The appropriate regulator4 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)4 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator4 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.444
SUP 8.6.1AGRP
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
SUP 8.6.2GRP
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
SUP 8.6.3GRP
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's4 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.44
SUP 8.6.5GRP
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator4 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator4 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
SUP 8.6.6GRP
The appropriate regulator4 may consider publication unnecessary where, for example, the waiver relates to a minor matter that does not affect any third party and is unlikely to be of relevance or interest to other firms.4
SUP 8.6.7GRP
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator4 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator4proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator4 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
SUP 8.6.8GRP
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the appropriate regulator4 proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.4
SUP 8.6.9GRP
The principal means of publication of waiver information will be the appropriate regulator's4 website.44
SYSC 4.8.5GRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.2.1G]5
SYSC 4.8.9RRP

[deleted] 5

SYSC 4.8.10RRP
(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(1)]5(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(2)]5(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(3)]5(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.3R]5(5) [deleted]5(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.4.3R]5(7) [deleted
SYSC 4.8.11GRP
(1) [deleted] 5(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.6.4G(1)]55(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.6.4G(2)]5(4) [deleted]55(5) [deleted]5(6) [deleted]5
SYSC 4.8.19GRP
[deleted]55
SYSC 4.8.26GRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.8.4G]5
SYSC 4.8.32GRP
[deleted] 5
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
SUP 6.2.3AGRP
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
SUP 6.2.3BGRP
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity it will need to apply to the relevant regulator8 for cancellation of its Part 4A permission8 and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part 4A permission.88888
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8

8Question

Variation of Part 4A permission

Cancellation of Part 4A permission

Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission.

A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it.

Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

If a firm:

1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or

2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled).
SUP 6.2.10AGRP
8In certain circumstances the FCA and/or the PRA may use their own-initiative powers or the FCA may use its additional own-initiative variation power6 (see SUP 7 and EG 8) (Variation and cancellation of permission and imposition of requirements6 on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
SUP 6.2.14GRP
A firm making an application in accordance with SUP 68 which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this at the same time as applying to the relevant regulator.8 See SUP 6 Annex 4 for additional procedures.88
COND 2.4.1BGRP
8Paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate resources threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1DGRP
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1EGRP
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.4.1GGRP
8Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is responsible for assessing their financial resources. Paragraphs 4D and 5D of Schedule 6 to the Act contain the threshold conditions relating to financial resources which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity (in addition to additional non-financial resources threshold
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
COND 2.4.3GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) Although8 it is the firm that is being assessed, the FCA8 may take into consideration the impact of other members of the firm's group on the adequacy of its resources8, where relevant to the discharge of the FCA's functions8. For example, in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, the FCA8 may assess the consolidated solvency of the group. The FCA's8 approach to the consolidated supervision of such
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
SYSC 4.7.4GRP
[deleted] 6
SYSC 4.7.5RRP
(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.1R]66(2) [deleted]66(3) [deleted]6(4) [deleted]66(5) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(1)]6(6) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(2)]66(7) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.4R]6
SYSC 4.7.7RRP

[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.6R]6

SYSC 4.7.8RRP
(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.1R]6(2) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.4.2R]6(3) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.4R]6
SYSC 4.7.9GRP
[deleted] 6
SYSC 4.7.32GRP
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.10.3G]6
SYSC 4.7.35GRP
[deleted] 6
SUP 10A.6.1GRP
(1) Every appointed representative8 will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing function.532(2) [deleted]5332(3)
SUP 10A.6.2AGRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.11GRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.15GRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.15CGRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.22GRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.28GRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.6.30GRP
[deleted]532
SUP 10A.6.34GRP
[deleted]7553
SUP 4.5.1RRP
An actuary2 appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must be objective in performing his duties.225
SUP 4.5.3RRP
An actuary appointed under firms PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.225
SUP 4.5.7GRP
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
SUP 4.5.8GRP
SUP 4.5.9 R to SUP 4.5.11 G apply to a person who is or has been an actuary appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66.225
SUP 4.5.9RRP
An actuary appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay if he:2255(1) is removed from office by a firm; or(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or(3) is not reappointed by a firm.
SUP 4.5.10RRP
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
SUP 4.5.13RRP
2When carrying out his duties, an actuary appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice.35
SUP 6.3.1AGRP
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
27Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.8GRP
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission27 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:27(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer of a person performing a controlled function22), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application
SUP 6.3.25GRP

Information which may be required. See SUP 6.3.24 G

Type of business

Information which may be required

All

1. Details of how the firm plans to comply with the relevant regulator's27 regulatory requirements relating to any additional regulated activities it is seeking to carry on.

27

2. Descriptions of the firm's key controls, senior management arrangements and audit and proposed compliance arrangements in respect of any new regulated activity (see SYSC).

3. Organisation charts and details of individuals transferring or being recruited to perform new controlled functions (see SUP 10A and SUP 10C, and the corresponding PRA requirements 20for details of the application or transfer procedures under the approved persons or senior managers22 regime).

Insurance business

1. A scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.

2. (If the application seeks to vary a permission to include motor vehicle liability insurance business) details of the claims representatives12 required by threshold condition 3F27 (Appointment of claims representatives), if applicable.

12

Accepting deposits and designated investment business

1. A business plan which includes the impact of the variation on the firm's existing or continuing business financial projections for the firm, including the impact of the requested change27 on the firm's financial resources and capital adequacy requirements.2

27
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
27If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
27Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
27Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power or, in respect of FCA-authorised persons, the FCA may exercise its additional own-initiative variation power, in each case26 to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) and Schedule 6A to the Act (Variation or cancellation of Part 4A permission on initiative of FCA: additional power)) if the firm
SUP 10C.11.1GRP
(1) Section 60(2A) of the Act (Applications for approval) says that, if a firm is applying for approval from the FCA or the PRA for a person to perform a designated senior management function, the regulator to which the application is being made must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the firm which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function. (2) That statement
SUP 10C.11.2GRP
(1) This section is about the FCA's requirements for statements of responsibilities.(2) However, in the case of a PRA-authorised person,6 where applications and notifications relate both to FCA-designated senior management functions and to PRA ones, the regulators’ requirements are consistent with each other.(3) The general material in this section (SUP 10C.11.13D5 to SUP 10C.11.35G) applies to statements of responsibilities submitted in all the cases covered by this section.
SUP 10C.11.6GRP
(1) This paragraph sets out non-exhaustive examples of potential changes which, in the FCA's view, may be significant and thus require the submission of a revised statement of responsibilities.(2) A variation of the FCA-approved SMF manager's approval, either at the firm's request or at the FCA's or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA's initiative, resulting in the imposition, variation or removal of a condition or time limit, may involve a significant change.(3) Fulfilling
SUP 10C.11.14GRP
(1) SUP 10C.11.13D means that, at any time, a firm should have a single document for an FCA-approved SMF manager5 that:(a) contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which that SMF manager has approval; and(b) where relevant, contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which the firm is applying for approval.(2) (In the case of a PRA-authorised person), the6 document in (1) should cover
SUP 10C.11.19GRP

Table: Examples5 of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work

1Example

Comments

(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions.

The combined document should be included with the application for approval.

(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms5.

There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm.

This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group.

(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function.

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions.

(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition.

The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application.

The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval.

(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions.

(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals.

The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated.

(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The answer to example (5) applies.

The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that:

(1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function;

(2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function5; and

(3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function5;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the PRA function;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function5.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA.

(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

The application is rejected.

The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval.

If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away.

In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J.

In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document.

(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm.

This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5.

The answer for example (4) applies.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant.

(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions.

It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary3 of firm X.

Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm5.

Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function5.

3

There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm.

7(16) An FCA-approved SMF manager goes on or returns from a temporary absence of longer than 12 weeks.

The firm must submit:

(a) Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R);

(b) Form J (SUP 10C Annex 9D); and

(c) an updated statement of responsibilities document (SUP 10C Annex 10D).

Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5
SUP 10C.11.21GRP
(1) A complete set of current statement of responsibilities means all statements of responsibilities that the firm has provided to the FCA or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA as revised under section 62A of the Act and this chapter5.(2) A statement of responsibilities is not current if the person in question no longer performs any of the controlled functions5 to which it relates.
SUP 10C.11.24GRP
(1) A statement of responsibilities (including its attachment sheet for additional information) should:(a) be complete by itself;(b) not refer to documents not forming part of it; and(c) only contain material about the matters that this chapter, the corresponding PRA requirements (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6 and the Act say should be included in it.(2) For example, if it is necessary to include relevant material from the firm's report and accounts, the statement
SUP 10C.11.26GRP
(1) SYSC or another part of the regulatory system will generally impose requirements (referred to as ‘prescribed requirements’ in this paragraph) that relate to a particular post or set of responsibilities. (2) For instance, these include:(a) the responsibilities that go with the FCA required functions; and(b) the FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities and5 (in the case of a PRA-authorised person)6 the PRA-prescribed senior management responsibilities5.2(3) The allocation
SUP 10C.11.28GRP
(1) A statement of responsibilities of an SMF manager should include details about any:(a) FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities and5 (in the case of a PRA-authorised person)6PRA-prescribed senior management responsibilities5allocated to the SMF manager; 2(b) (in the case of a PRA-authorised person)6 functions that are included in a PRA controlled function under the arrangements described in5SUP 10C.9 (Minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime); 5(c)
SUP 10C.11.32GRP
(1) Where:(a) an FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility is divided or shared between several SMF managers5; or(b) any function allocated under SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility) is shared between several SMF managers (if that chapter applies to the firm)5;25the statement of responsibilities for each SMF manager should:(c) explain why this has been done; and(d) give full details of the arrangements, including the names
COND 2.5.1BGRP
15Paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1DGRP
15Paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1EGRP
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.5.1FGRP
15Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing suitability under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4E and 5E of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the suitability threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not
COND 2.5.3GRP
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (in relation to an FCA-approved person, 16see SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives19), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers regime for approved persons in SMCR
COND 2.5.6GRP
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
APER 1.1A.1RRP
1APER applies to FCA-approved persons who are approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives).53
APER 1.1A.1AGRP
[deleted]5
APER 1.1A.2RRP
(1) 1APER applies to the performance by an approved person of FCA controlled functions in SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives5) (whether or not approval has been sought and granted).3(2) APER also applies to the performance by an approved person of any other functions in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by their authorised approved person employer.3(3) Subject to (4), APER does not apply to conduct to which COCON applies.3(4) APER applies
APER 1.1A.6GRP
[deleted]51333
APER 1.1A.7GRP

[deleted]5

3
DEPP 1.2.1GRP
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include a person not directly involved in establishing
DEPP 1.2.4AGRP
2Section 395 of the Act also requires the FCA to publish a statement of its procedure for decisions which give3 rise to an obligation for the PRA to include a statement under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where the FCA proposes to refuse consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act, or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5), 55I(8) or
DEPP 1.2.4BGRP
2Where an application for Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the permission is for certain regulated activities only.
DEPP 1.2.4CGRP
2Where an application to vary a Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations, or the PRA specifying the permission
DEPP 1.2.4DGRP
2Where an application to perform a controlled function is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator, the PRA can only approve a person to perform a controlled function with the consent of the FCA (section 59(4)(b) of the Act). Where the application is a relevant senior management application, the FCA’s consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing conditions, or the PRA giving approval only for a limited period.3
GEN 4.5.3ARRP
4A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the PRA in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.
GEN 4.5.4ARRP
4A firm must not indicate or imply that it is regulated or otherwise supervised by the PRA in respect of business for which it is not regulated by the PRA.
GEN 4.5.6GRP
It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.2(3) [deleted]44
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
SUP 4.3.9RRP
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
SUP 4.3.12ARRP
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69:8(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf
SUP 4.3.13RRP
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
SUP 4.3.14GRP
The PRA Rulebook requires9firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87