Related provisions for INSPRU 3.2.28
201 - 220 of 257 items.
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Regulated Covered Bonds Team2" by any of the following methods:1(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
1However, there may be circumstances in which the FCA will choose to use the powers under section 382 or section 383 of the Act to apply to the court for an order for restitution against a firm. Those circumstances may include, for example, where: (1) the FCA wishes to combine an application for an order for restitution with other court action against the firm, for example, where it wishes to apply to the court for an injunction to prevent the firm breaching a relevant requirement11;
(1) 1In determining what amounts to 75% of the applicant's business for the purpose of LR 6.2.1R(2), the FCA will consider the size, in aggregate, of all of the acquisitions that the applicant has entered into during the period required by LR 6.2.1R(1) and up to the date of the prospectus or listing particulars, relative to the size of the applicant as enlarged by the acquisitions.(2) In ascertaining the size of the acquisitions relative to the applicant for the purposes of LR
(1) 8ESMA has issued guidelines on the use of the term ‘UCITS ETF’. A ‘UCITS ETF’ is a UCITS with at least one unit or share class which is traded throughout the day, on at least one regulated market or multilateral trading facility, with at least one market maker that takes action to ensure that the stock exchange value of its units or shares does not significantly vary from its net asset value and, where applicable, its indicative net asset value.(2) A ‘UCITS ETF’ should use
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case when it decides whether a2 variation of Part 4A permission under section 55J of the Act3 or an imposition of a requirement under section 55L of the Act3 is appropriate. The following is a non-exhaustive list of factors the FCA may consider. (1) The extent of any loss, or risk of loss, or other adverse effect on consumers. The more serious the loss or potential loss or other adverse effect, the more likely it is that the
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
(1) 1Unless a rule provides otherwise, a firm must:(a) recognise an asset or liability; and(b) measure the amount of that asset or liability,by using the accounting principles it applies in preparing the firm's
reporting form in (2).(2) The accounting principles are referred to in the Notes for completion of the Retail Mediation Activities Return (RMAR) (under the heading “Accounting Principles”) in SUP 16 Annex 18BG.8
Table 2ZA: AIFMD activities |
Part II RAO Activities |
Part III RAO Investments |
|
1. |
Article 51ZC |
N/A (activity relates to property of any kind) |
|
2. |
Management of portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds and institutions for occupational retirement in accordance with article 19(1) of Directive 2003/41/EC, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary client-by-client basis (Note 2). |
Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 40 (arranging only), 64 |
Articles 76 to 81, 82B,12 83 to 85, 89 |
3. |
Investment advice (Note 2). |
Articles 53(1)10, 64 |
Articles 76 to 81, 82B,12 83 to 85, 89 |
4. |
Safe-keeping and administration in relation to shares or units of collective investment undertakings. |
Articles 40, 45, 64 |
Articles 76 to 81, 82B,12 83 to 85, 89 |
5. |
Reception and transmission or orders in relation to financial instruments. |
Articles 25(1), 64 |
Articles 76 to 81,82B,12 83 to 85, 89 |
Note 1. See FUND 1.4.2 R to FUND 1.4.4 R for further information in relation to the activities that full-scope UK AIFMs are able to perform. |
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Note 2. See FUND 1.4.5 G for the position with respect to assets which are not financial instruments. |
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(1) Qualified investor schemes are authorised funds which are intended only for professional clients and for retail clients who are2 sophisticated investors. For this reason, qualified investor schemes are subject to a restriction on promotion under COBS 4.12B.6R5. See also COBS 4.12B.47G5.21223211(1A) 3The authorised contractual scheme manager of a qualified investor scheme which is4 an ACS must take reasonable care to ensure that subscription in relation to the units of this
Social housing firms undertake small amounts of home finance1business even though their main business consists of activities other than regulated activities. Their home financing1is only done as an adjunct to their primary purpose (usually the provision of housing) and is substantially different in character to that done by commercial lenders. Furthermore, they are subsidiaries of local authorities or registered social landlords which are already subject to separate regulation.
The following are the criteria that the appropriate regulator will take into account when considering whether the condition in BIPRU 2.1.24 R is going to be met:(1) the speed with which funds can be transferred or liabilities repaid to the firm and the simplicity of the method for the transfer or repayment;(2) whether there are any interests other than those of the firm in the subsidiary undertaking and what impact those other interests may have on the firm's control over the
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
For the purposes of the calculation of the capital resources of a firm carrying on home finance administration1only with all the assets it administers off balance sheet, annual income is the sum of:11(1) revenue (that is, commissions, fees, net interest income, dividends, royalties and rent); and(2) gains;(3) arising in the course of the ordinary activities of the firm, less profit:(a) on the sale or termination of an operation;(b) arising from a fundamental reorganisation or
(-1) The guidance in (1), (1A) and (1B) does not apply in circumstances where an authorised fund manager is required to temporarily suspend dealings in units in an authorised fund under COLL 7.2.-3R or COLL 7.2.-1R.7(1) 1Suspension should be allowed only in exceptional cases where circumstances so require and suspension is justified having regard to the interests of the unitholders. (1A) Except in the case of FIIAs (for which see (1B) below), difficulties7 in realising scheme
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar breaches