Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1
161 - 180 of 595 items.
A firm is required to provide the FCA2 with a wide range of information to enable the FCA2 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FCA2 must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,
3SUP 15.11 (Notification of COCON breaches and disciplinary action) provides rules and guidance on notifications to the FCA by an SMCR firm where the SMCR firm8 takes disciplinary action in relation to any conduct rules staff and the reason for taking that action is a reason specified in rules made by the FCA. This is a requirement imposed4 under section4 64C of the Act.4
1In the course of its supervision and monitoring of a firm or as part of an enforcement action, the FCA may make it clear that it expects the firm to take certain steps to meet regulatory requirements. In the vast majority of cases the FCA will seek to agree with a firm those steps the firm must take to address the FCA’s concerns. However, where the FCA considers it appropriate to do so, it will exercise its formal powers under sections 55J or 55L of the Act to vary a firm's
1Examples of circumstances in which the FCA will consider varying a firm'sPart 4A permission because it has serious concerns about a firm, or about the way its business is being or has been conducted include where: (1) in relation to the grounds for exercising the power under section 55J(1)(a) or section 55L(2)(a) of the Act, the firm appears to be failing, or appears likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions relating to one or more, or all, of its regulated activities,
(Subject to SUP 12.5.3AG) a 13firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):13(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FCA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
Where a person (A), who2 is already an appointed representative, proposes to start to2 carry on any insurance distribution activities, A2 will need to consider the following matters.(1) A2 must become authorised if the insurance distribution activities that A proposes to carry on2 include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts)2. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
1In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.3.7R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) to require the firm to increase its risk weighted exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the appropriate
1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.3.11D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
1Subject to BIPRU 9.3.22G, BIPRU 9.15.9R and BIPRU 9.15.10R, where the originator or sponsor of a securitisation fails to meet any of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.18R to BIPRU 9.3.20R (disclosure requirements) in any material respect by reason of its negligence or omission, the appropriate regulator will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to impose an additional risk weight of no less than 250% (capped at 1250%) of the
A person who is concerned to know whether their proposed insurance distribution activities4 may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions:4(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts of insurance))?(2) if so, will I be carrying on any insurance distribution activity4 (see PERG 5.5 (The regulated activities: dealing in contracts as agent) to PERG 5.11 (Other aspects of exclusions))?(3) if so, will I be carrying on
It is recognised pursuant to section 22 of the Act that a person will not be carrying on regulated activities in the first instance, including insurance distribution activities4, unless the person is4 carrying on these activities by way of business. Similarly, where a person's activities are excluded that person4 cannot, by definition, be carrying on regulated activities. To this extent, the content of the questions above does not follow the scheme of the Act. For ease of navigation,
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with contracts of insurance will need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to contracts of insurance. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). (See in particular PERG 8.17A (Financial promotions concerning insurance distribution4
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2(1)(10) of the IDD7 and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons that are not PRA-authorised
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the IDD7, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors and other senior
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger6, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them was6 the subject of a UCITS marketing notification before IP completion day76.(2) [deleted]6
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a domestic UCITS merger are in6 Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the merger must be a domestic UCITS merger which takes the form of a scheme of arrangement;6(b) the need for the FCA to give prior approval to the proposed merger under regulation 9 (Application for authorisation) of the UCITS Regulations 2011;6(c)
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) [deleted]6(3) For the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger6:(a) the date for calculating the exchange ratio of units of the merging UCITS into units of the receiving UCITS and, where applicable, for determining the relevant net asset value for cash will be the
The declaration for the purposes of articles 60H(1)(c) and 60Q(b) of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content- 2“Declaration by high net worth borrower or hirer(articles 60H(1) and 60Q of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)2I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of high net worth made in relation to me for the purposes of article 60H(1)(d) 2or article 60Q(c) of the Financial Services and
2Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreementThe declaration for the purposes of article 60H(1)(c) of the Regulated Activities Order and of CONC 1.2.10R(2) must have the following form and content-
“Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreement
(article 60H(1)(c) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of
A declaration for the purposes of articles 60C or 60O of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content“Declaration for exemption relating to businesses(articles 60C and 60O of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)I am/We are* entering this agreement wholly or predominantly for the purposes of a business carried on by me/us or intended to be carried on by me/us.I/We* understand that I/We* will not have the benefit
3Various persons are exempted by Order made by the Treasury under section 38 of the Act from the need to obtain authorisation for certain credit-related regulated activities in the circumstances specified in the Order (for example, in some cases, a person is exempt only when acting in a particular capacity or for particular purposes). Persons exempt under the Order cannot be exempt in relation to some regulated activities and authorised in relation to others (except where the
(1) 4The exemption in paragraph 55 of the Schedule to the Exemption Order covers special purpose vehicles and other entities which are part of a structured finance transaction and which meet the specified conditions. It confers exemption from the general prohibition on a person (“P”) for the regulated activity of exercising, or having the right to exercise. the lender’s rights and duties under a regulated credit agreement (and associated regulated activities) where there is an
Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons6) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1R(8)4 to notify the appropriate regulator6 of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm.3 Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the appropriate regulator's approval6 before becoming a controller or increasing
As the approval of the appropriate regulator6 is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator6 still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings
Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both permanently8 ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions in relation to7 the same firm or in relation to a firm in the same7group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if: 2(a) the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:2(i) an FCA controlled function that is2 a significant-influence function; or2(ii) an FCA-designated
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10C Annex 3D7), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R5). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
19The Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint if the complainant refers it to the Financial Ombudsman Service:(1) more than six months after the date on which the respondent sent the complainant its final response, 512redress determination or summary resolution communication512; or3(2) more than: (a) six years after the event complained of; or (if later)(b) three years from the date on which the complainant became aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he had cause
(1) 713In addition to DISP 2.8.1R and DISP 2.8.2R, unless one or more of the conditions in (2) below is met, the Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint which:(a) relates to the sale of a payment protection contract that took place on or before 29 August 2017; and(b) expresses dissatisfaction about the sale, or matters related to the sale, including where there is a rejection of claims on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion (but not matters unrelated to the sale, such as delays
1The FCA will consider cancelling a firm'sPart 4A permission using its own-initiative powers contained in sections 55J and 55Q respectively of the Act in two main circumstances: (1) where the FCA has very serious concerns about a firm, or the way its business is or has been conducted; (2) where the firm'sregulated activities have come to an end and it has not applied for cancellation of its Part 4A permission.
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's
permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
1However, where the FCA has cancelled a firm'sPart 4A permission, it is required by section 33 of the Act to go on to give a direction withdrawing the firm'sauthorisation. Accordingly, the FCA may decide to keep a firm'sPart 4A permission in force to maintain the firm's status as an authorised person and enable it (the FCA) to monitor the firm's activities. An example is where the FCA needs to supervise an orderly winding down of the firm's regulated business (see SUP 6.4.22 (When
(1) The authorised fund manager3 of an AUT3 or ACS3 is subject to removal by written notice by the depositary3 upon any of the following events:33(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the authorised fund manager3;3(b) an application being made to dissolve the authorised fund manager3 or to strike it off the Register of Companies;3(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the authorised fund manager3;3(d) the making of, or any proposals
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
1A person required to attend an interview by the use of statutory powers has no entitlement to insist that the interview takes place voluntarily. If someone does not attend an interview required under the Act, then he can be dealt with by the court as if he were in contempt (where the penalties can be a fine, imprisonment or both).
1If a suspect has been interviewed by the FCA using statutory powers, before they are re-interviewed on a voluntary basis (under caution or otherwise), the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview. The FCA will also tell the individual about the limited use that can be made of their previous answers in criminal proceedings or in proceedings in which the FCA seeks a penalty for market abuse under Part VIII of the Act.
1Where the FCA has appointed an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator2, it may, under sections 169(7) or 131FA of the Act2, direct the investigator to allow a representative of that regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation. However, the FCA may only use this power if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator2as a result of the interview will be subject to safeguards
The purpose of this guidance is three-fold:11(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act. It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FCA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). The result (which is summarised in PERG 4.3.5 G) is that:(1) the 'by way of business' test in section 22 of the Act applies unchanged in relation to the activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract;(2) the 'by way of
The 'carrying on the business' test in the Business Order is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities 'by way of business' in section 22 of the Act as it requires the regulated activities to represent the carrying on of a business in their own right. Whether or not the business test is satisfied in any particular case is ultimately a question of judgement that takes account of a number of factors (none of which is likely to be conclusive). The nature of the
Section 21(2) of the Act sets out two circumstances in which a financial promotion will not be caught by the restriction in section 21(1). These are where the communicator is an authorised person or where the content of the financial promotion has been approved for the purposes of section 21 by an authorised person. Where approval is concerned it must be specifically for the purposes of enabling the financial promotion to be communicated by unauthorised persons free of the restriction
Where an authorised person makes a financial promotion, he is not subject to the restriction in section 21. So, the communication of the financial promotion by the authorised person will not be a criminal offence under the provisions of section 25 of the Act (Contravention of section 21) and any resulting contract will not be unenforceable under section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreement resulting from unlawful communications). However, the appropriate financial promotion
An unauthorised person may wish to pass on a financial promotion made to him by an authorised person. In this case, the fact that the financial promotion was made to him by an authorised person will not be enough for the restriction in section 21 not to apply to him. The authorised person must also both have approved its content and have done so for the purpose of section 21 of the Act. If an authorised person wishes to ensure that an unauthorised person can communicate a financial