Related provisions for REC 6.8.2

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REC 6.7.3RRP
Where an ROIE1 includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FCA's1 assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it must include particulars
REC 6.7.5RRP
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
REC 6.7.7RRP
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
REC 6.7.8RRP
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
REC 6.7.13GRP
ROIEs 1may apply to the FCA1 for a waiver of any of the notification rules. The procedure is the same as that for applications from UK recognised bodies. Guidance on the procedure is given in REC 3.3.1
REC 6.6.1GRP
An ROIE1 is required to notify the FCA1 of certain events and give information to it on a regular basis and when certain specified events occur. Section 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) requires each ROIE1 to provide the FCA1 with a report (at least once a year) which contains:111(1) a statement as to whether any events have occurred which are likely to affect the FCA's assessment of whether it is satisfied that the ROIE
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66

31

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application.

66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

(4) [deleted]66

1418013434343434343441

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) [deleted]66

(d) [deleted]66

27
2727

(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R:

66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme;

66(ii)

application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF;

66(iii) the management company of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act;

66(iv) a non-UK AIFM (with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation;

66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation;

66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM.

5836

Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66

36

On or before the date the application or notification66 is made

36

(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66

66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body;

66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges;

66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body;

66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company;

66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations;

66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations;

66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR;

66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10;

66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier.

272727

Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

2727

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

28

28(ea) [deleted]66

5656

(eb) [deleted]66

28

(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66

66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;

66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme;

66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond;

66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D;

66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for:

66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or

66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act.

Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17781717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) [deleted]66

(o) [deleted]65

112229529782929556782929295557829295782929297829295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157857855256

[deleted]65

278292978292978229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66

(2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66

(2A) [deleted]66

(3) [deleted]66

(3A) [deleted]66

(3B) [deleted]66

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66

66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR;

(ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R;

(3D) [deleted]66

(4) [deleted]66

[deleted]66

3080444130808011178783778378080371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730804111781444444

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137913797722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

66 566

(s) [deleted]66

5
7777375937597777377737 37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66

8

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66.

47

On or before the date the application is made.

(ya) [deleted]66

47
47 47

(z) [deleted]66

47

(za) [deleted]66

47

(zb) [deleted]66

47
5050475050475047474747475050

(zc) [deleted]66

47
474747474747

(zd)

47
47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78
78 91678

(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66.

16

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66

On or before the date the application is made.

(zh) [deleted]66

16

(zi) [deleted]66

1614

(zj) [deleted]66

16
5050

(zk) [deleted]66

16

(zl) [deleted]66

15
18

(zm) [deleted]66

18
4141

(zn) [deleted]66

18
4141 21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

(zs) [deleted]66

3031
31303131

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(zw) [deleted]66

4563634963

(zx) [deleted]66

46
63

(zy) [deleted]66

464956

56

63

(zz) [deleted]66

51

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

(zzb) [deleted]66

52

(zzc) [deleted]66

52

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

(zze) [deleted]66

55

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

REC 6.8.1GRP
The FCA1 has similar powers to supervise ROIEs1 to those it has to supervise UK RIEs1. It may (in addition to any other powers it might exercise):111(1) give directions to an ROIE1 under section 296 of the Act (Authority's power to give directions) if it has failed, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the recognition requirements or if it has failed to comply with any other obligation imposed by or under the Act; or1(2) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking
REC 6.2.1GRP
(1) Overseas investment exchanges which are considering whether to seek authorisation or recognition should first consider whether they will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Overseas investment exchanges which do not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom need take no action.33(2) Prospective applicants should discuss authorisation and recognition with the FCA3 before deciding whether to seek authorisation or recognition.3
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
REC 6.1.1GRP
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:2(1) obtain a Part 4A permission2 from the FCA2; or422(2) [deleted]4(3) [deleted]4113331(4) obtain exempt person status by being declared by the FCA2 to be an ROIE.222
REC 3.3.1GRP
Under section 294 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FCA1 may, on the application or with the consent of a recognised body (including an ROIE),1 direct that any notification rule is not to apply to the body or is to apply with such modifications as may be specified in the waiver.11
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC49)

25

As54 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R6554

373737

(1) Unless (2) applies54, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) If54 an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.754

77776464414141

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32, the DRS Regulations41 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

679

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,15151

46314031

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs,52

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event.51

2364

Certificate issued to person by the51FCA64 under article 4054 of the Regulated Activities Order46

64

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

UK AIFM49 of an LTIF49

33

In relation to each LTIF49 the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The LTIF49 is authorised by the FCA under the LTIF Regulation49

33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1for a UK RIE; and55

FEES 4 Annex 6R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also a RAP55

651349

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1.491166

116611661311661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

33

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

A sponsor35

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

3110122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

35Approval of a35sponsor35

141414

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

66

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

29

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) A non-UK AIFM49 which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5949 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) non-UK AIFM49 which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.

30

[deleted]41

45A third country legal representative

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

45A benchmark endorser

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

50Any UK-based firm registered as a credit rating agency; a trade repository; a securitisation repository or any third country firm certified as a credit rating agency or recognised as a trade repository.

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 16R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

53Proxy advisor

(1) £5,000

(2) For a proxy advisor which is already trading on 1 April 2020, the amount specified in (1) upon notifying the FCA.

(3) For a proxy advisor which starting trading after 1 April 2020, the fee payable is pro-rated in proportion to the months remaining in the financial year 1 April – 31 March, including the month of notification.

(1) At the time of notification

(2) For a proxy advisor which has already notified the FCA, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
REC 1.1.2GRP
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID/MiFIR requirements7.26RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the RAP regulations, under the
REC 1.1.3GRP
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies5are set out, with guidance, in REC 2.6 The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the UK auctioning regulations which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.723(1A) Key relevant MiFID/MiFIR requirements directly applicable to UK recognised bodies are signposted as “Notes”.5(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those
REC 6.3.1GRP
Before making a recognition order, the FCA3 will need to be satisfied that the recognition requirements in section 292(3) of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges) have been met. These requirements are the only recognition requirements applicable to ROIEs3. 333
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

2Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply with -4

3

4(i) recognition requirements, other than any such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph; and

4(ii) requirements contained in any directly applicable Community regulation made under the markets in financial instruments directive or markets in financial instruments regulation;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE]

3

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

3

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

3

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to-

3

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on 1 December 20216, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

[deleted]6

5

(d)

[deleted]6

5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on 1 December 20216 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

5

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.

LR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the listing rules are extracted from the Glossary.

16

Act

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission or admission to listing

admission of securities to the official list .

admission to trading

admission of securities to trading on an RIE's market for listedsecurities.

advertisement

(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication with both of the following characteristics:53

(a)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(b)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.

applicant

an issuer which is applying for admission of securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PR Regulation53) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable there under; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

associate

(A)36 in relation to a director, substantial shareholder, or person exercising significant influence, who is an individual:

6

(1)

that individual's spouse , civil partner 2or child (together "the individual's family");

(2)

the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are related parties;

(3)

any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able:

(a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or

(b) to appoint or remove directors33 holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;29

33

29(4)

any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual’s family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control:

(a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or

(b) at least 30% of the partnership.

For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one director of the listedcompany, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those directors and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the director.

(B)36

in relation to a substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence, which is a company:

6

(1)

any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;

(2)

any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the substantial shareholder's or person exercising significant influence's directions or instructions;6

66

(3)

any company in the capital of which the substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence and any other companyunder paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (3)(a) or (b) above of this definition.6

36(C) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder who is an individual:

36(1)

that individual's spouse, civil partner or child (together "the individual's family");

36(2)

the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are controlling shareholders);

36(3)

any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able:

(a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or

(b) to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;

36(4)

any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control:

(a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or

(b) at least 30% of the partnership.

36For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one controlling shareholder of the listed company, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those controlling shareholders and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the controlling shareholder.

36(D) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder which is a company:

36(1)

any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;

36(2)

any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the controlling shareholder's directions or instructions;

36(3)

any company in the capital of which the controlling shareholder and any other company under paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this definition.

authorised person

(in accordance with section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons)) one of the following:

(a)

a person who has a Part 4A permission to carry on one or more regulated activities;

(b)

[deleted]52

(c)

[deleted]52

(d)

[deleted]52

(e)

an ICVC;

(f)

the Society of Lloyd's.13

(see also GEN 2.2.18R for the position of an authorised partnership or unincorporated association which is dissolved.)52

bank

(a)

a firm with a Part 4A permission which includes accepting deposits, and:

but which is not a building society, a friendly society or a credit union;

(b)

[deleted]52

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in article 8 of the Prospectus Regulation.5329

29body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.

book value of property

(in relation to a property company) the value of a property (which is not classified as a net current asset) before the deduction of mortgages or borrowings as shown in the company's latest annual report and accounts.

29break fee arrangement

an arrangement falling within the description in LR 10.2.6A R.

53

53

business day

(1)

(in relation to anything done or to be done in (including to be submitted to a place in) any part of the United Kingdom), any day which is not a Saturday or Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a bank holiday in that part of the United Kingdom;

(2)

(in relation to anything done or to be done by reference to a market outside the United Kingdom) any day on which that market is normally open for business.

44

44

CARD

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.

certificate representing certain securities

the investment specified in article 80 of the Regulated Activities Order (Certificates representing certain securities), which is in summary: a certificate or other instrument which confers contractual or property rights (other than rights consisting of options):

(a)

in respect of any share, debenture, alternative debenture,19government and public security or warrant held by a person other than the person on whom the rights are conferred by the certificate or instrument; and

19

(b)

the transfer of which may be effected without requiring the consent of that person;

but excluding any certificate or other instrument which confers rights in respect of two or more investments issued by different persons or in respect of two or more different government and public securities issued by the same person.

certificate representing debt securities

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of debentures, alternative debentures,19 or government and public securities.

certificate representing equity securities

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity securities.

certificate representing shares

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity shares.30

charge

(in relation to securitised derivatives) means any payment identified under the terms and conditions of the securitised derivatives.

Chinese wall

an arrangement that requires information held by a person in the course of carrying on one part of its business to be withheld from, or not to be used for, persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business.

circular

any document issued to holders of listed securities including notices of meetings but excluding prospectuses, listing particulars, annual reports and accounts, interim reports, proxy cards and dividend or interest vouchers.

class

securities the rights attaching to which are or will be identical and which form a single issue or issues.

class 1 acquisition

a class 1 transaction that involves an acquisition by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.

class 1 circular

a circular relating to a class 1 transaction or a transaction which must comply with the requirements of a class 1 transaction38.

class 1 disposal

a class 1 transaction that consists of a disposal by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.

class 1 transaction

a transaction classified as a class 1 transaction under LR 1060.

class 2 transaction

a transaction classified as a class 2 transaction under LR 1060.

29

class tests

the tests set out in LR 10 Annex 1(and for certain specialist companies, those tests as modified or added to by LR 10.7), which are used to determine how a transaction is to be classified for the purposes of the listing rules.

closed-ended

(in relation to investment entities) an investment entity58 which is not an open-ended investment company.

5closed-ended investment fund

an entity:

(a)

which is an undertaking with limited liability, including a company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership; and

(b)

whose primary object is investing and managing its assets (including pooled funds contributed by holders of its listed securities):

(i) in property of any description; and

(ii) with a view to spreading investment risk.

43

43

COBS9

the Conduct of Business sourcebook, from 1 November 20079.

3Combined Code

in relation to an issuerthe Combined Code on Corporate Governance published in June 2008 by the Financial Reporting Council.18

18

company

any body corporate.

competent authority

(in relation to the functions referred to in Part VI of the Act) the FCA52

52

52

connected client

in relation to a sponsor or securities house, any client of the sponsor or securities house who is:

(a)

a partner, director, employee or controller (as defined in section 422 of the Act) of the sponsor or securities house or of an undertaking described in paragraph (d);

(b)

the spouse , civil partner 2or child of any individual described in paragraph (a);

(c)

a person in his capacity as trustee of a private trust (other than a pension scheme or an employees' share scheme) the beneficiaries of which include any person described in paragraph (a) or (b); or

(d)

an undertaking which in relation to the sponsor or securities house is a group undertaking.

connected person

(in DTR and LR in relation to a person discharging managerial responsibilities within an issuer) has the meaning given to “person closely associated” in article 3(1)(26) of the Market Abuse Regulation.43

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities (No 2001/34/EC).

constitution

memorandum and articles of association or equivalent constitutional document.

contingent liability investment

a derivative under the terms of which the client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position.

contract of significance

a contract which represents in amount or value (or annual amount or value) a sum equal to 1% or more, calculated on a group basis where relevant, of:

(1)

in the case of a capital transaction or a transaction of which the principal purpose or effect is the granting of credit, the aggregate of the group's share capital and reserves; or

(2)

in other cases, the total annual purchases, sales, payments or receipts, as the case may be, of the group.

36controlling shareholder

means any person who exercises or controls on their own or together with any person with whom they are acting in concert, 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company. For the purposes of calculating voting rights, the following voting rights are to be disregarded:49

(1)

any voting rights which such a person exercises (or controls the exercise of) independently in its capacity as: bare trustee, investment manager, collective investment undertaking or a long-term insurer in respect of its linked long-term business if no associate of that person interferes by giving direct or indirect instructions, or in any other way, in the exercise of such voting rights (except to the extent any such person confers or collaborates with such an associate which also acts in its capacity as investment manager, collective investment undertaking or long-term insurer); or49

(2)

any voting rights which a person may hold (or control the exercise of) solely in relation to the direct performance, by way of business, of:49

(a)

underwriting the issue or sale of securities; or49

(b)

placing securities, where the person provides a firm commitment to acquire any securities which it does not place; or 49

(c)

acquiring securities from existing shareholders or the issuer pursuant to an agreement to procure third-party purchases of securities;49

and where the conditions below are satisfied:49

(i)

the activities set out in (2)(a) to (c) are performed in the ordinary course of business;49

(ii)

the securities to which the voting rights attach are held for a consecutive period of 5 trading days or less, beginning with the first trading day on which the securities are held;49

(iii)

the voting rights are not exercised within the period the securities are held; and49

(iv)

no attempt is made directly or indirectly by the person to intervene in (or attempt to intervene in) or exert (or attempt to exert) influence on the management of the issuer within the period the securities are held.49

convertible securities

a security which is:

(1)

convertible into, or exchangeable for, other securities; or

(2)

accompanied by a warrant33 or option33 to subscribe for or purchase other securities.

3333

deal

a dealing transaction;

dealing

(in accordance with paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Act (Regulated activities)) buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting investments or offering or agreeing to do so, either as principal or as an43 agent, including, in the case of an investment which is a contract of insurance, carrying out the contract.

debt security

debentures, alternative debentures,19 debenture stock, loan stock, bonds, certificates of deposit or any other instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness.7

6deferred bonus

any arrangement pursuant to the terms of which an employee or director may receive a bonus (including cash or any security) in respect of service and/or performance in a period not exceeding the length of the relevant financial year notwithstanding that the bonus may, subject only to the person remaining a director or employee of the group, be receivable by the person after the end of the period to which the award relates.

6defined benefit scheme

in relation to a director, means a pension scheme which is not a money purchase scheme.

depositary

a person that issues certificates representing certain securities that have been admitted to listing33 or are the subject of an application for admission to listing.

33

7DEPP

the Decision Procedure and Penalties manual

designated professional body

a professional body designated by the Treasury under section 326 of the Act (Designation of professional bodies) for the purposes of Part XX of the Act60 (Provision of Financial Services by Members of the Professions); 60the following professional bodies have been designated in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1226), the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) (Amendment) Order 2004 (SI 2004/3352) and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) (Amendment) Order 2006 (SI 2006/58)60:

(a) The Law Society of England and Wales60;

(b) The Law Society of Scotland;

(c) The Law Society of Northern Ireland;

(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales;

(e) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Scotland;

(f) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in Ireland;

(g) The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants;

(h) The Institute of Actuaries;.

(i) The Council for Licensed Conveyancers; and60

(j) The Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors.60

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

43disclosure guidance

the guidance contained in DTR 1 to 3

disclosure requirements43

1616

articles 17, 18 and 19 of the Market Abuse Regulation.43

1616

document

any piece of recorded information, including (in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation)) information recorded in any form; in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include references to producing a copy of the information in legible form.

60

60

DTR

the Disclosure Guidance43 and Transparency Rules39 sourcebook containing the disclosure guidance43, transparency rules,39corporate governance rules and the rules relating to primary information providers.1639

1639

39E-Commerce Directive

the Council Directive of 8 June 2002 on legal aspects of information society services, in particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (No 2000/31/EC).

EEA State

(in accordance with Schedule 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978), in relation to any time:52

(a)

a state which at that time is a member State; or52

(b)

any other state which is at that time a party to the EEA agreement.52

[Note: Current non-member State parties to the EEA agreement are Norway, Iceland and Lichtenstein.]52

7EG

the Enforcement Guide

employee

an individual:

(a)

who is employed or appointed by a person in connection with that person's business, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or

(b)

whose services, under an arrangement between that person and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of that person;

but excluding an appointed representative or, where applicable, a tied agent9 of that person.

employees' share scheme

has the same meaning as in section 116615 of the Companies Act 200615.7

668668

equity security

equity shares and securities convertible into equity shares.

equity share20

shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

53

6

53

38

38ESMA

European Securities and Markets Authority.

ESMA Prospectus Recommendations40

40

the ESMA update of the CESR recommendations60: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).40

40

52EU

the European Union, being the Union established by the Treaty on European Union signed at Maastricht on 7 February 1992 (as amended), taking into account United Kingdom’s withdrawal from the Union pursuant to Article 50 of the Treaty.

52EU-adopted International Accounting Standards (or EU adopted IFRS)

means the international accounting standards within the meaning of EC Regulation No 1606/2002 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 19 July 2002 as adopted from time to time by the European Commission in accordance with that Regulation.

52EUWA

the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018.

exercise notice

(in relation to securitised derivatives), a document that notifies the issuer of a holder's intention to exercise its rights under the securitised derivative.

exercise price

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the price stipulated by the issuer at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying instrument from or to the issuer.

exercise time

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the time stipulated by the issuer by which the holder must exercise their rights.

expiration date

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the date stipulated by the issuer on which the holder's rights in respect of the securitised derivative ends.

27external management company

(in LR and PRR53) has the meaning in PRR 5.3.3R53. (i.e., in relation to an issuer that is a company which is not a collective investment undertaking, a person who is appointed by the issuer (whether under a contract of service, a contract for services or any other commercial arrangement) to perform functions that would ordinarily be performed by officers of the issuer and to make recommendations in relation to strategic matters).

extraction

(in relation to mineral companies), includes mining, quarrying or similar activities and the reworking of mine tailings or waste dumps.

FCA

the Financial Conduct Authority.

final terms

the document containing the final terms of each issue which is intended to be listed.

financial information table

financial information presented in a tabular form that covers the reporting period set out in LR 13.5.13 R in relation to the entities set out in LR 13.5.14 R, and to the extent relevant LR 13.5.17A R30.

30

57founding shareholder

as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.

57public shareholder

as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.

group

(1)

except in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10),LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36, 6an issuer and its subsidiary undertakings (if any); and

36123636

(2)

in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10), 6LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36as defined in section 421 of the Act.

36123636

guarantee

(in relation to securitised derivatives), either:

(1)

a guarantee given in accordance with LR 19.2.2 R (3)(if any); or

(2)

any other guarantee of the issue of securitised derivatives.

guidance

guidance given in the FCA Handbook,60 by the FCA under the Act.

Handbook

the FCA Handbook60.28

28holding company

(as defined in section 1159(1) of the Companies Act 2006 (Meaning of "subsidiary" etc) (in relation to another body corporate ("S")) a body corporate which:

(a)

holds a majority of the voting rights in S; or

(b)

is a member of S and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of its board of directors; or

(c)

is a member of S and controls alone, under an agreement with other shareholders and members, a majority of the voting rights in S.

Home Member State or Home State

[deleted]5452

Host Member State or Host State

[deleted]5452

52

52

39

36independent director

a director whom an applicant49 or listed company has determined to be independent under the UK Corporate Governance Code.

36independent shareholder

any person entitled to vote on the election of directors of a listed company that is not a controlling shareholder of the listed company.

39information society service

an information society service, as defined by article 2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive and article 1(2) of the Technical Standards and Regulations Directive (98/34/EC), which is in summary any service normally provided for remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing (including the digital compression) and storage of data at the individual request of a service recipient.

inside information

as described in article 7 of the Market Abuse Regulation45.

43

43

intermediaries offer

a marketing of securities already or not yet in issue, by means of an offer by, or on behalf of, the issuer to intermediaries for them to allocate to their own clients.

52

52

in the money

(in relation to securitised derivatives):

(a)

where the holder has the right to buy the underlying instrument or instruments from the issuer, when the settlement price is greater than the exercise price; or

(b)

where the holder has the right to sell the underlying instrument or instruments to the issuer, when the exercise price is greater than the settlement price.5

10investment entity

an entity whose primary object is investing and managing its assets with a view to spreading or otherwise managing investment risk.

investment manager

a person who, on behalf of a client, manages investments and is not a wholly-owned subsidiary of the client.5

5

investment trust

a company which:

40

(a)

is approved by the Commissioners for HM Revenue and Customs33 under sections 1158 and 1159 of the Corporation Tax Act 201040 (or, in the case of a newly formed company, has declared its intention to conduct its affairs so as to obtain such approval); or

3340

(b)

(for the purposes of COBS 4.14 and60 the definitions of non-mainstream pooled investment and packaged product only)52 is resident in an EEA State52and would qualify for such approval if resident in the United Kingdom.

issuer

any company or other legal person or undertaking (including a public sector issuer), any class of whose securities has been admitted to listing33 or is the subject of an application for admission to listing33.

3333

29limited liability partnership

(a) a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;

(b) a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.

list of sponsors

the list of sponsors maintained by theFCA in accordance with section 88(3)(a) of the Act.

listed

admitted to the official list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74 of the Act.

listed company

a company that has any class of its securitieslisted.

listing particulars

(in accordance with section 79(2) of the Act), a document in such form and containing such information as may be specified in listing rules.

listing rules

(in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 1673A(2) of the Act) rules16relating to admission to the official list.

1616

London Stock Exchange

London Stock Exchange Plc.

long-term incentive scheme

any arrangement (other than a retirement benefit plan, a deferred bonus or any other arrangement that is an element of an executive director's remuneration package) which may involve the receipt of any asset (including cash or any security) by a director or employee of the group:

(1)

which includes one or more conditions in respect of service and/or performance to be satisfied over more than one financial year; and

(2)

pursuant to which the group may incur (other than in relation to the establishment and administration of the arrangement) either cost or a liability, whether actual or contingent.

LR

the Listing Rules sourcebook60.

29

45

major subsidiary undertaking

a subsidiary undertaking that represents 25% or more of the aggregate of the gross assets or profits (after deducting all charges except taxation) of the group.

45

43Market Abuse Regulation

the UK version of52 Regulation (EU) No 596/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 2014 on market abuse (market abuse regulation) and repealing Directive 2003/6/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council46 and Commission Directives 2003/124/EC, 2003/125/EC and 2004/72/EC, which is part of United Kingdom law by virtue of the EUWA.52

45

member

(as defined in section 325(2) of the Act (FCA’s general duty))60 (in relation to a profession) a person who is entitled to practise that profession and, in practising it, is subject to the rules of the relevant designated professional body, whether or not he is a member of that body.

mineral company

a company or group, whose principal activity is, or is planned to be, the extraction of mineral resources (which may or may not include exploration for mineral resources).

mineral expert's report

a competent person's36 report prepared in accordance with paragraph 133 of36 the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations.40CESR recommendations30

40

mineral resources

include metallic and non-metallic ores, mineral concentrates, industrial minerals, construction aggregates, mineral oils, natural gases, hydrocarbons and solid fuels including coal.

miscellaneous securities20

securities which are not:

(a)

shares; or

(b)

debt securities; or

(c)

asset backed securities; or

(d)

certificates representing debt securities; or

(e)

convertible securities which convert to debt securities; or

(f)

convertible securities which convert to equity securities; or

(g)

convertible securities which are exchangeable for securities of another company; or

(h)

certificates representing certain securities; or

(i)

securitised derivatives.

43

43

30modified report

30

an accountant's or 30auditor's report:

(a)

in which the opinion is modified; or30

30

(b)

which contains an emphasis-of-matter paragraph.30

30

6money purchase scheme

in relation to a director, means a pension scheme under which all of the benefits that may become payable to or in respect of the director are money purchase benefits.

60national storage mechanism

the system identified by the FCA on its website as the national storage mechanism for regulatory announcements and certain documents published by issuers.

net annual rent

(in relation to a property) the current income or income estimated by the valuer:

(1)

ignoring any special receipts or deductions arising from the property;

(2)

excluding Value Added Tax and before taxation (including tax on profits and any allowances for interest on capital or loans); and

(3)

after making deductions for superior rents (but not for amortisation) and any disbursements including, if appropriate, expenses of managing the property and allowances to maintain it in a condition to command its rent.

49

52

52

OECD state guaranteed issuer

an issuer of debt securities whose obligations in relation to those securities33 have been guaranteed by a member state of the OECD.

33

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer for sale

an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, a third party to purchase securities of the issuer already in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).

offer for subscription

an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, an issuer to subscribe for securities of the issuer not yet in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication to persons in any form and by any means, presenting sufficient information on the terms of the offer and the securities to be offered, so as to enable an investor to decide to purchase or subscribe for those securities. This definition also applies to the placing of securities through financial intermediaries.53

53

53

53

53

53

53

53

53

53

53

53

offeror

(a)

in LR 5.2.10 R to LR 5.2.11D R36, an offeror as defined in the Takeover Code; and

(b)

elsewhere in LR, a person36who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

36

official list

the list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74(1) of the Act for the purposes of Part VI of the Act.

open-ended investment company33

33

as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies).

open offer

an invitation to existing securities holders to subscribe or purchase securities in proportion to their holdings, which is not made by means of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document).31

31operational objectives

as defined in section 1B(3) of the Act.

option

the investment, specified in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order (Options), which is in summary60 an option to acquire or dispose of:

  • (a) a designated investment (other than a P2P agreement,37an option or one to which (d) or (e) applies60); or
  • (b) currency of the United Kingdom or of any other country or territory; or
  • (c) palladium, platinum, gold or silver; or
  • (d) a commodity to which article 83(2) and (4) of the Regulated Activities Order applies; or60
  • (e) a financial instrument in paragraph 10 of Section C of Annex 1 to MiFID to which article 83(3) and (4) of the Regulated Activities Order applies; or60
  • (f) an option to acquire or dispose of an option specified in (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e),60
but so that for the purposes of calculating capital requirements for BIPRU firms it also includes any of the items listed in the table in BIPRU 7.6.18R (Option PRR: methods for different types of option) and any cash settled option.60

overseas

outside the United Kingdom.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

overseas investment exchange

an investment exchange which has neither its head office nor its registered office in the United Kingdom.

parent undertaking

as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615.

668668

60

60

53

prospectus directive.53

60

60

52

percentage ratio

(in relation to a transaction) the figure, expressed as a percentage, that results from applying a calculation under a class test22 to the transaction.

22

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporate (that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

person discharging managerial responsibilities

as defined in article 3(1)(25) of the Market Abuse Regulation45.

person exercising significant influence

in relation to a listed company, a person or entity which exercises significant influence over that listed company.

6

placing

a marketing of securities already in issue but not listed or not yet in issue, to specified persons or clients of the sponsor or any securities house assisting in the placing, which does not involve an offer to the public or to existing holders of the issuer'ssecurities generally.

preference share

a share conferring preference as to income or return of capital which does not form part of the equity share capital of a company.

20

16premium listing

(a)

in relation to equity shares20 (other those of a closed-ended investment fund 58 or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150), means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with those requirements in LR 6 (Additional requirements for premium listing (commercial company)) and the20 other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;

(b)

in relation to equity shares20 of a closed-ended investment fund, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 15 (Closed-Ended Investment Funds: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;

(c)

[deleted]58

2050

(d)

in relation to equity shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing; and50

(e)

in relation to certificates representing shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing.50

premium listing (commercial company)

a premium listing of equity shares21 (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund 58or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150).

21

58premium listing (closed-ended investment fund)

a premium listing of equity shares of a closed-ended investment fund.

50premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)

a premium listing of:

(a)

equity shares (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund58); or

(b)

certificates representing shares,

where the issuer of the equity shares or, in the case of certificates representing shares, the issuer of the equity shares which the certificates represent is a sovereign controlled commercial company and is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to securities in this category.

58

212139

39primary information provider

a person approved by the FCA under section 89P of the Act.

probable reserves

(1)

in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which are not yet proven but which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 50% chance of being produced; and

(2)

in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured and/or indicated mineral resources, which are not yet proven but of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination and under specified economic conditions.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PR Regulation53) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PR Regulation53) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

43

43

3333

property

freehold, heritable or leasehold property.

property company

a company primarily engaged in property33 activities including:

33

(1)

the holding of properties (directly or indirectly) for letting and retention as investments;

(2)

the development of properties for letting and retention as investments;

(3)

the purchase and development of properties for subsequent sale; or

(4)

the purchase of land for development properties for retention as investments.5

property valuation report

a property valuation report prepared by an independent expert in accordance with:6

6

(1)

for an issuer incorporated in the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man, the Appraisal and Valuation Standards (5th edition) issued by the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors; or6

(2)

for an issuer incorporated in any other place, either the standards referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition or the International Valuation Standards (7th edition) issued by the International Valuation Standards Committee.6

prospectus

a prospectus required under the Prospectus Regulation. 54

52

53

53

54Prospectus Regulation

the UK version of Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.

54Prospectus RTS Regulation

the UK version of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/979, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.

52Prospectus RTS Regulation 2

[deleted]54

prospectus rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.33

33

proven reserves

(1)

in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 90% chance of being produced; and

(2)

in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured mineral resources of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination, and under specified economic conditions.

53PRR

the Prospectus Regulation Rules sourcebook.

53PR Regulation

the UK version of54 Regulation number 2019/980 of the European Commission, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA54.

public international body

the African Development Bank60, the Asian Development Bank, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank,60 the Caribbean Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank6, the European Atomic Energy Community, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Company for the Financing of Railroad Stock, the EU,17 the European Investment Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Monetary Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank60.

61717

public sector issuer

states and their regional and local authorities, state monopolies, state finance organisations, public international bodies, statutory bodies and OECD state guaranteed issuers.

recognised scheme

a scheme recognised for the purpose of part XVII of the Act.52

52

52

(b)

[deleted]35

35

52

52

registration document

a registration document referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation53.

Regulated Activities Order

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)

Order 2001 (SI 2001/544).9

regulated market

a regulated market which is a UK RIE.52

[Note: article 2(1)(13A52) of MiFIR52]33

333347947

regulatory information service or RIS

a primary information provider52

393941414141

related party

as defined in LR 11.1.4 R.

related party circular

a circular relating to a related party transaction.

related party transaction

as defined in LR 11.1.5 R.

retail securitised derivative

a securitised derivative which is not a specialist securitised derivative; in this definition, a "specialist securitised derivative" is a securitisedderivative which, in accordance with the listing rules, is required to be admitted to listing with a clear statement on any disclosure document that the issue is intended for a purchase by only investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

reverse takeover

a transaction classified as a reverse takeover under LR 5.6.28

28

RIE

recognised investment exchange.

rights issue

an offer to existing security holders to subscribe or purchase further securities in proportion to their holdings made by means of the issue of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document) which may be traded (as “nil paid” rights) for a period before payment for the securities is due.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA or the PRA60 under the Act (including as applied by the Payment Services Regulations and the Electronic Money Regulations)60, including:

(a) a Principle; and

(b) an evidential provision.

53

3333

53

scientific research based company

securities note

a securities note referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation53.

securitised derivative

an option or contract for differences which, in either case, is listed under LR 19 (including such an option or contract for differences33 which is also a debenture).

33

security

(in accordance with section 102A of the Act) anything which has been, or may be admitted to the official list.

settlement price

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the reference price or prices of the underlying instrument or instruments stipulated by the issuer for the purposes of calculating its obligations to the holder.

shadow director

as in sub-paragraph (b) of the definition of director in section 417(1) of the Act.

share

(in accordance with section 540(1)15 of the Companies Act 200615) a share in the share capital of a company, and includes:

6681566815

(a)

stock (except where a distinction between shares and stock is express or implied); 60

(b)

preference shares; and60

(c)

in chapters 4, 5, 6 and 7 of DTR a convertible share.60

49shell company

as defined in LR 5.6.5AR.

specialist investor

an investor who is particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specialist securities

securities which, because of their nature, are normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specialist securitised derivative

a securitised derivative which because of its nature is normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specified investment

any of the following investments specified in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified Investments):

(a)

deposit (article 74);

(aa)

electronic money (article 74A);

(b)

contract of insurance (article 75); for the purposes of the permission60 regime, this is sub-divided into:

and then further sub-divided into classes of contract of insurance;

(c)

share (article 76);

(d)

debenture (article 77);19

(da)

alternative debenture (article 77A);19

(e)

government and public security (article 78);

(f)

warrant (article 79);

(g)

certificate representing certain securities (article 80);

(h)

unit (article 81);

(i)

stakeholder pension scheme (article 82);24

24(ia)

personal pension scheme (article 82(2));60

52

60(iab)

pension scheme which provides safeguarded benefits (article 82(3)) (but only in relation to advising on conversion or transfer of pension benefits));

(j)

option (article 83); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(k)

future (article 84); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(l)

contract for differences (article 85); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(m)

underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(1));

(n)

membership of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(2));

(o)

funeral plan contract (article 87);

(oa)

regulated mortgage contract (article 61(3);

23

(ob)

home reversion plan (article 63B(3));

23

(oc)

home purchase plan (article 63F(3));

23

(od)

regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 63J(3));

56

(oe)

emissions auction product (article 82A);

60(of)

credit agreement (article 88D) for the purposes of the permission regime with respect to the regulated activities of entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender and exercising, or having the right to exercise, the lender’s rights and duties under a regulated credit agreement, this is sub-divided into:

(i)

a credit agreement (excluding high-cost short-term credit, a home credit loan agreement and a bill of sale loan agreement);

(ii)

high-cost short-term credit;

(iii)

a home credit loan agreement;

(iv)

bill of sale loan agreement,

and this has effect as if the reference to a credit agreement includes a reference to an article 36H agreement within the meaning of article 36H (4) of the Regulated Activities Order;

60(og)

consumer hire agreement (article 88E);

(p)

rights to or interests in investments (article 89).

59specified weighted voting rights shares

has the meaning given to it in LR 9.2.22CR.

sponsor

(1)

except in LR 5.6.18AG, a person approved, under section 88 of the Act by the FCA, as a sponsor.57

(2)

in LR 5.6.18AG, as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.57

38sponsor declaration

a declaration submitted by a sponsor to the FCA as required under LR 8.4.3 R (Application for listing), LR 8.4.9 R (Further application for listing), LR 8.4.13 R (Production of circular) or LR 8.4.14 R (Transfer between listing category).

12sponsor service

a service relating to a matter referred to in LR 8.2 that a sponsor provides or is requested or appointed to provide including32 preparatory work that a sponsor may undertake before a decision is taken as to whether or not it will act as sponsor for a listed32company or applicant33 or in relation to a particular transaction, and including all the sponsor's communications with the FCA33 in connection with the service32. But nothing in this definition is to be taken as requiring a sponsor when requested32 to agree to act as a sponsor for a company or in relation to a transaction.

323233

standard listing

in relation to securities, means a listing that is not a premium listing.

58standard listing (open-ended investment company)

a standard listing of equity shares of an open-ended investment company.

20standard listing (shares)

a standard listing of shares other than preference shares that are specialist securities.

state finance organisation

a legal person other than a company:

(1)

which is a national of a state52;

(2)

which is set up by or pursuant to a special law;

(3)

whose activities are governed by that law and consist solely of raising funds under state control through the issue of debt securities;

(4)

which is financed by means of the resources they have raised and resources provided by the state52; and

(5)

the debt securities issued by it are considered by the law of the relevant state52 as securities issued or guaranteed by that state.

state monopoly

a company or other legal person which is a national of a state52 and which:

(1)

in carrying on its business benefits from a monopoly right granted by a state52; and

(2)

is set up by or pursuant to a special law or whose borrowings are unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by a state or one of a state’s federated states.52

subsidiary undertaking

as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615.

6681566815

substantial shareholder

as defined in LR 11.1.4A R.256

625

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary60 included in the prospectus.

SUP

the Supervision manual.

supplementary listing particulars

(in accordance with section 81(1) of the Act), supplementary listing particulars containing details of the change or new matter.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

Takeover Code

the City Code on Takeovers and Mergers issued by the TakeoverPanel.

target

the subject of a class 1 transaction or reverse takeover28.

TCFD Annex

the document entitled “Implementing the Recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures” published in October 2021 61by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55

61TCFD Guidance on Metrics, Targets and Transition Plans

the document entitled “Guidance on Metrics, Targets, and Transition Plans” published in October 2021 by the Task Force on Climate related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.

TCFD Final Report

the report entitled “Recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures” published in June 2017 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55

TCFD Guidance on Risk Management Integration and Disclosure

the document entitled “Guidance on Risk Management Integration and Disclosure” published in October 2020 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org..55

TCFD Guidance on Scenario Analysis for Non-Financial Companies

the document entitled “Guidance on Scenario Analysis for Non-Financial Companies” published in October 2020 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55

TCFD Recommendations and Recommended Disclosures

the four recommendations and the eleven recommended disclosures set out in Figure 4 of Section C of the TCFD Final Report.55

TCFD Technical Supplementon the Use of Scenario Analysis61

the technical supplement entitled “The Use of Scenario Analysis in Disclosure of Climate-related Risks and Opportunities” published in June 2017 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org..55

54TD Equivalence Decision

the UK version of Commission Decision (EC) No 2008/961 of 12 December 2008 on the use by third countries’ issuers of securities of certain third country’s national accounting standards and International Financial Reporting Standards to prepare their consolidated financial statements, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.

tender offer

an offer by a company to purchase all or some of a class of its listedequity securities at a maximum or fixed price (that may be established by means of a formula) that is:

20

(1)

communicated to all holders of that class by means of a circular or advertisement in two national newspapers;

(2)

open to all holders of that class on the same terms for at least 7 days; and

(3)

open for acceptance by all holders of that class pro rata to their existing holdings.25

52third country

a territory or country which is not the United Kingdom.

25trading day

any day of normal trading in a share on a regulated market or MTF in the United Kingdom for this share.60

3333

43

14

43

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFIR52, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of MiFIR52 which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

99

26transparency rules

in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 89A of the Act, rules relating to the notification and dissemination of information in respect of issuers of transferable securities and relating to major shareholdings.

treasury shares

shares which meet the conditions set out in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection 724(5) of the Companies Act 2006.15

66866815

trust deed

a trust deed or equivalent document securing or constituting debt securities.

UK

United Kingdom.

52UK-adopted international accounting standards

(in accordance with section 474(1) of the Companies Act 2006) international accounting standards which are adopted for use within the United Kingdom by virtue of Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 2 of the International Accounting Standards and European Public Limited-Liability Company (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019.

52UK-adopted IFRS

UK-adopted international accounting standards.

18UK Corporate Governance Code

the UK Corporate Governance Code published in July 201851 by the Financial Reporting Council, available at: https://www.frc.org.uk/directors/corporate-governance-and-stewardship/uk-corporate-governance-code48.

4040484240

underlying instrument

(in relation to securitised derivatives) means either:

(1)

if the securitised derivative is an option or debt security with the characteristics of an option, any of the underlying investments listed in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order; or

(2)

if the securitised derivative is a contract for differences or debt security with the characteristics of a contract for differences, any factor by reference to which a profit or loss under article 85 of the Regulated Activities Order can be calculated.

53universal registration document

a universal registration document referred to in article 9 of the Prospectus Regulation.

unrecognised scheme

a collective investment scheme which is neither a recognised scheme nor a scheme that is constituted as an authorised unit trust scheme or an authorised contractual scheme.34

vendor consideration placing

a marketing, by or on behalf of vendors, of securities that have been allotted as consideration for an acquisition.

venture capital trust

a company which is, or which is seeking to become, approved as a venture capital trust under section 842AA of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.

warrant

the investment, specified in article 79 of the Regulated Activities Order (Instruments giving entitlements to investments), which is in summary: a warrant or other instrument entitling the holder to subscribe for a share, debenture, alternative debenture19 or government and public security.

59weighted voting rights shares

shares that carry more than one vote on one or more matters to be decided at a general meeting.

50sovereign controlled commercial company

an issuer in which a State exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of that company.

50sovereign controlling shareholder

(in relation to a company with or applying for a listing of equity shares or certificates representing shares in the category of premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)) a State which exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company.

50State

means:

(a)

the sovereign or other head of a State in their public capacity;

(b)

the government of a State;

(c)

a department of a State; or

(d)

an agency or a special purpose vehicle of a State, including an agency or special purpose vehicle of (a), (b) or (c).