Related provisions for SUP 10A.13.3

FEES 3.2.5G01/01/2021

(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations or verification under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations45 or notification or registration

FEES 3.2.7R01/01/2022

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 1 80 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a LTIF 58 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) A non-UK AIFM 56 (with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5956 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 78 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 78 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
(o) [deleted]65 1 1 2 2 29 5 29 78 29 29 5 56 78 29 29 29 5 5 5 78 29 29 5 78 29 29 29 78 29 29 5	[deleted]65 5 2 5 5 5 1 2 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 5 78 5 78 5 5 2 56	[deleted]65 2 78 29 29 78 29 29 78 2 29
(oa) [deleted]65 29 37 37 37 37 58 56 37 37 37 37 58 37 37	[deleted]65 37	[deleted]65 37 37 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 30 80 41 30 80 80 1 78 78 37 78 37 80 80 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 79 13 79 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 20,00059; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 12,500.59 77 77 37 37 77 77 37 77 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47	On or before the date the application is made.
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.	47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	47On or before the date the application is made.
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution 50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47 47 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]78 78	78	9 16 78
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80	On or before the application is made.80
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with the DRS Regulations 63 49 under regulation 8 of those regulations 63 or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations. 63	Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.	On the date the application is made.
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.	1) 20,00063	On the date the application is made
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 1056. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application. 49	10,00063 56	On the date the application is made.
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.	500	On or before the date the application is made.
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R. Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
52(zzb) An application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation.	5,000	On the date the application is made.
52(zzc) An application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation.	1,500	On the date the application is made.
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	(1) £1,200 for claims management companies with annual turnover of up to and including £1,000,000; and (2) £10,000 for claims management companies with annual turnover of over £1,000,000. Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will receive a 50% reduction in the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
55(zze) An application for authorisation as a third party verifier	(1) Unless (2) applies, 1,500. (2) Firms which already have Part 4A permissions will not receive a 50% reduction in the authorisation fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.	(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).	On or before the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

DEPP 7.1.1G01/01/2021

1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at the request of an overseas regulator, under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators)4under section 131FA2 of the Act; and(2) has directed, or is considering directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act, to permit a representative of the overseas regulator4 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation.2

DEPP 7.1.2G01/04/2013

In DEPP 7, a "requested2 interview" means any interview conducted for the purposes of an investigation under section 169(1)(b) or section 131FA2 of the Act in relation to which the FCA3 has given a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act.23

DEPP 7.1.3G01/04/2013

The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FCA's3 statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 has been given or the FCA3 is considering giving. The FCA3 is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by section 169(9) and (11) and section 131FA2 of the Act. As required by section 169(10) and section 131FA2 of the Act, the Treasury has approved the statement of policy.333

REC 2.5.1UK29/01/2021

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4
(1)	The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
(2)	Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -
	(a)	the transmission of information;
	(b)	the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE's relevant functions];
	(c)	the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];
	(ca)	the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;
	(d)	the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and
	(e)	(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.
	4(f)	the resilience of its trading systems;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(g)	the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(h)	the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;
	4(i)	the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;
	4(j)	the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;
	4(k)	the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];
	4(l)	the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;
	[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]
	4(m)	the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;
	4(n)	the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and
	4(o)	the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]
4(3)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and
	4(b)	monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.
4(4)	For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.
4(5)	The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.
4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);
	4(b)	have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;
	4(c)	monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;
	4(d)	inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and
	4(e)	provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.
4(2)	A market making agreement must specify-
	4(a)	the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;
	4(b)	where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);
	4(c)	any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and
	4(d)	where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).
4(3)	For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -
	4(a)	the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;
	4(b)	the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and
	4(c)	the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.
4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must be able to -
	4(a)	temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and
	4(b)	in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.
4(2)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -
	4(a)	the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;
	4(b)	the nature of the trading venue market model; and
	4(c)	the types of users,
	4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.
4(3)	The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.
4(4)	If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]
4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access
4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -
4(1)	(a)	ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -
		4(i)	an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6
		4(ii)	a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6
		4(iii)	is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6
		4(iv)	is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
		4(v)	is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or
		4(vi)	is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;
	4(b)	ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;
	4(c)	ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6;
	4(d)	set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;
	4(e)	be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -
		4(i)	other orders; or
		4(ii)	trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and
	4(f)	have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]
4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -
	4(a)	be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
	4(b)	not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]
	4(c)	impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.
4(2)	Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -
	4(a)	adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;
	4(b)	calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;
	4(c)	imposing a higher fee -
		4(i)	for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;
		4(ii)	on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or
		4(iii)	on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,
		4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.
4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -
	4(a)	the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and
	4(b)	the persons initiating those orders.
4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes
4(1)	Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -
	4(a)	shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]
	4(b)	any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue.
	[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
8(1A)	The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices.
	[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4 (2)	The tick size regime must -
	4(a)	be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and
	4(b)	adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.
4(3)	The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]

REC 2.5.14G01/04/2013

The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33

EG 10.4.101/03/2016

1The FCA has a range of powers it can use to take remedial, protective and disciplinary action against a person who has contravened a relevant requirement or engaged in market abuse, as well as its powers to seek injunctions under sections 380 and 381 of the Act and under the courts' inherent jurisdiction. Where appropriate, the FCA may exercise these other powers before, at the same time as, or after it applies for an injunction against a person.

EG 10.4.401/03/2016

1In certain cases, conduct that may be the subject of an injunction application will also be an offence which the FCA has power to prosecute under the Act. In those cases, the FCA will consider whether it is appropriate to prosecute the offence in question, as well as applying for injunctions under section 380, section 381, or both.

LR 4.2.1G01/04/2013

Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing particulars) requires listing particulars submitted to the FCA to contain all such information as investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi

LR 4.2.9G01/04/2013

Under section 82 of the Act (exemptions from disclosure) the FCA may authorise the omission from listing particulars of information on specified grounds.

LR 4.2.10R01/04/2013

A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.

SUP 5.6.1G01/06/2016

Within the legal constraints that apply, the FCA1 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information received1

SUP 5.6.3G01/06/2016

2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm

SUP 5.6.4G01/04/2013

2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.

SUP 8.2.1G01/04/2013

Under section 138A12of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the appropriate regulator12 may, on the application or with the consent of a firm, direct that its 9rules:121299(1) are not to apply to the firm; or(2) are to apply to the firm with such modifications as may be specified.

SUP 8.2.1AG01/04/2013

12SUP 8.2.1 G does not apply to:(1) rules made by either regulator under section 137O of the Act;(2) rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.

SUP 8.2.3G01/07/2013

Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FCA12 to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:111210(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS11 or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT, ACS11 or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT), the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary (in the case of an ACS)11 or the ICVC and

SUP 1A.1.2G01/01/2021

The Act (section 1L) requires the FCA to "maintain arrangements for supervising authorised persons". Section 1K of the Act also requires the FCA to provide general guidance about how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general functions in relation to different categories of authorised person or regulated activity. One purpose of this guidance is to discharge the duties of the FCA set out in sections 1L and 1K of the Act. The FCA's approach to

SUP 1A.1.3G01/04/2019

The design of these arrangements is shaped by the FCA'sstatutory objectives in relation to the conduct supervision of2firms as well as the prudential supervision of firms not supervised by the PRA. These objectives are set out in Chapter 1 of the Act. The FCA has one strategic objective: ensuring that the relevant markets function well. In discharging its general functions, the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible, act in a way which is compatible with its strategic objective

SUP 1A.1.4G01/04/2013

(1) In designing its approach to supervision, the FCA has regard to the regulatory principles set out in section 3B of the Act. In particular, the FCA's regulatory approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management of each firm (section 3B(1)(d) of the Act) to ensure that it takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility

REC 6A.2.1G03/01/2018

1Under section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6 operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement;6 and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3)

REC 6A.2.3G01/04/2013

The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it is to exercise this prohibition power is set out in sections 313B(3) to (9) of the Act.5

COND 1.2.2G01/01/2021

(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) [deleted]43333333

COND 1.2.3G01/01/2021

(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative

COND 1.2.5G01/04/2013

(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies

PERG 8.6.1G01/04/2013

The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning

SUP 16.3.14AG07/03/2016

9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FCA28 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which

SUP 16.3.23G01/07/2021

When the FCA28 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 23 of the Act38 (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential (see41SUP 2.2.4G).41494949493849

FEES 4.4.9D01/04/2013

3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444

REC 2.3.13G01/04/2013

(1) 4Under the standard approach, the amount of eligible financial resources is equal to six months of operating costs.(2) Under the standard approach, the FCA5 assumes liquid financial assets are needed to cover the costs that would be incurred during an orderly wind-down of the UK recognised body'sexempt activities, while continuing to satisfy all the recognition requirements and complying with any other obligations under the Act (including the obligations to pay periodic fees

SUP 11.3.2AG01/04/2014

The Treasury have made the following exemptions from the obligations under section 178 of the Act10:(1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/77410));10(2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change

EG 13.3.301/03/2016

1The FCA would not ordinarily petition for an administration order unless it believes that the company or partnership is, or is likely to become, insolvent. Similarly, the FCA would not ordinarily petition for a compulsory winding up order solely on the ground of inability to pay debts (as provided in the Act), unless it believes that the company or partnership is or is likely to be insolvent.

EG 13.3.401/03/2016

1While a default on a single agreement of the type mentioned in paragraph 13.3.2 is, under the Act, a presumption of an inability to pay debts, the FCA will consider the circumstances surrounding the default. In particular, the FCA will consider whether: (1) the default is the subject of continuing discussion between the company or partnership and the creditor, under the relevant agreement, which is likely to lead to a resolution; (2) the default is an isolated incident; (3) in

REC 4.6.1G30/04/2021

Under section 296 of the Act (FCA's4 power to give directions)5 and (for RAPs) under regulation 3 of the RAP regulations,6 the FCA4 has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognised body requirements. In the case of a UK RIE (including one which operates a RAP)65those steps may include granting the FCA4 access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents

REC 4.6.3G30/04/2021

The FCA4 is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act or regulation 3 of the RAP regulations65if it considers that:43(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that 1one or more of the recognised body requirements is3 satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying with the direction.

REC 4.6.4G30/04/2021

Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), 5 the FCA4 need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8) or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it reasonably necessary to do so. For RAPs, the FCA need not follow the procedure set out in regulation 5 of the RAP regulations or may cut short the procedure, if it considers it essential to do so.6534444

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4