Related provisions for SUP 16.22.7

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REC 3.26.4RRP
1The duty in section 300B(1) of the Act does not apply to any of the following:(1) any regulatory provision which is required under 6any enactment or rule of law in the United Kingdom; or22(2) (a) the specification of the standard terms of any derivative which a UK RIE proposes to admission to trading, or the amendment of the standard terms of any derivative already admitted to trading; or(b) the specification or any amendment of standard terms relating to the provision of clearing
SUP 3.10.8BGRP
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
IPRU-INV 14.2.6GRP
(1) The FCA may require a firm to provide information about the position in the group of any undertaking excluded from the consolidation under rule 14.2.5. (2) An exclusion under rule 14.2.5(2) would normally be appropriate when an entity would be excluded from the scope of consolidation under the relevant UK generally accepted accounting principles.
INSPRU 8.4.8RRP
(1) 2The Society must give the FCA a report as at the end of each calendar quarter in which any capacity is transferred.(2) The report referred to in (1) must reach the FCA within one month of the end of the relevant calendar quarter and must include information on:(a) the total capacity in syndicates transferred during the quarter, analysed by syndicate and method of transfer;(b) the number, and nature, of all investigations by the Society into conduct in the capacity transfer
BIPRU 8.4.19GRP
Although an investment firm consolidation waiver switches off most of this chapter, a firm should still carry out the capital adequacy calculations in BIPRU 8.3 to BIPRU 8.8 as if those parts of this chapter still applied to the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group3 and report these to the FCA. It should also still monitor large exposure risk on a consolidated basis.
COLL 6.2.12GRP

Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).

Correction of box management errors

1

Controls by authorised fund managers

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over:

(1)

its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and

(2)

compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box.

2

Controls by depositaries

(1)

Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation).

(2)

A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures.

3

Recording and reporting of box management errors

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error.

(2)

A depositary should report material box management errors to the FCA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including:

  • the implications of the error for the sufficiency of controls put into place by the authorised fund manager;
  • the significance of any breakdown in the authorised fund manager's management controls or other checking procedures;
  • the significance of any failure of systems or back-up arrangements;
  • the duration of an error; and
  • the level of compensation due to the scheme, and an authorised fund manager's ability (or otherwise) to meet claims for compensation in full.

(3)

A depositary should also make a return to the FCA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis.
MAR 10.5.3GRP
1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the power of the FCA to impose reporting requirements in respect of positions taken in commodity derivatives and emission allowances:(1) Paragraph 8 of Schedule 1 provides that a person must provide the FCA with information in respect of its compliance or non-compliance with position limit requirements, as the FCA may direct; and (2) Paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 provides that the FCA must maintain arrangements designed to
LR 13.4.7GRP
The FCA may modify the information requirements in LR 13.4.6 R if it considers that the information set out would not provide significant additional information. In those circumstances the FCA would generally require only the following information, provided it is presented in accordance with reporting standards acceptable to the FCA:33(1) details of mineral resources, and where applicable reserves (presented separately) and exploration results or prospects;3(2) anticipated mine
MAR 5.10.7RRP
An MTF registered as an SME growth market may be deregistered by the FCA in the following cases:(1) the firm operating the market applies for its deregistration; or(2) the requirements in MAR 5.10.2R are (subject to MAR 5.10.3G(1)) no longer complied with.[Note: article 33(5) of MiFID and article 79 of the MiFID Org Regulation]
MAR 5.3A.7RRP
The firm must report the parameters mentioned in MAR 5.3A.6R to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory contact of the firm at the FCA, and obtain an electronic confirmation of receipt.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
SUP 10C.8.3GRP

Table: Examples of how the other local responsibility function applies

Example

Comments

(1) ‘A’ is allocated local responsibility for one of a branch’s main business lines. A is also appointed to perform a PRA-designated senior management function for the same branch. The firm is a PRA-authorised person5.

A only needs approval to perform the PRA-designated senior management function.

(2) ‘A’ is outside the branch’s management structure and A’s responsibilities for the branch are limited to setting overall strategy for the branch. A does not have responsibility for implementing that strategy.

A is not performing the other local responsibility function. The reason for this is explained in SYSC 26.8.3G4. SUP 10C.8.1R(2) is irrelevant to this example.

4

(3) A small branch undertakes two business lines (wholesale lending and corporate investments). ‘A’ is head of wholesale lending and is also an executive director of the branch. ‘B’ is head of corporate investments and does not sit on the branch management committee but reports to it on corporate investments. The branch allocates local responsibility for these functions to A and B. Neither A nor B performs any other FCA-designated senior management function or (if the firm is a PRA-authorised person)5PRA-designated senior management function.

4

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function4. B needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function.

3

(4) A branch does not have a Head of Internal Audit. ‘P’ is allocated local responsibility for internal audit in relation to that branch.

P needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function. However, if P has already been approved to perform another FCA-designated senior management function or (if the firm is a PRA-authorised person)5PRA-designated senior management function for that firm4, then P will not be performing the other local responsibility function.

(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive director function4. The same branch also allocates local responsibility for some branch functions to A.

3

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function4.

3

(6) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive director function4 for the same firm.

3

A requires approval for the other local responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive director function4, A stops performing the other local responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive director function and to notify the FCA that A is no longer performing the other local responsibility function.4

33

(7) ‘A’ is appointed to perform:

(a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be an SMCR firm to which the other local responsibility function applies4); and

(b) a function coming within the scope of the other local responsibility function for the United Kingdombranch of4 another firm (which is an overseas SMCR firm to which the other local responsibility function applies4) in the same group (Firm Y).

A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other local responsibility function for Firm Y.

(8) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer. A is a type of firm for which being chief risk officer is a PRA designated senior management function or an FCA-designated senior management function5.

4

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other local responsibility function.

On being approved as chief risk officer, A stops performing the other local responsibility function4.

(9) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other local responsibility function4.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive director function4. A will need to get approval to perform the other local responsibility function before A takes up their new responsibilities4.

3

Note: Local responsibility is explained in SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility).4
ICOBS 8.4.9ARRP
2The requirement referred to in ICOBS 8.4.9R (7)(b) is that the report must include an opinion from the auditor confirming whether, in all material respects, the tracing office maintains a database which accurately and reliably stores information submitted to it by firms for the purpose of complying with relevant requirements in ICOBS 8.4 and that it has systems which can adequately keep it up to date in the light of new information provided by firms.
SUP 16.14.6RRP
3A CMAR must be submitted by electronic means made available by the FCA10.10
SUP 16.2.1GRP
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FCA1 needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FCA1 to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.777(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to disclose to the FCA1 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. The reporting
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FCA5 will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FCA5 should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10A.14.17 R and SUP 10C.14.18R5), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction
COLL 6.12.5RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme 6 must establish, implement and maintain an adequate and documented risk management policy for identifying the risks to which that scheme is or might be exposed.(2) The risk management policy must comprise such procedures as are necessary to enable the authorised fund manager 6 to assess the exposure of each UCITS it manages to market risk, liquidity risk and counterparty risk, and to all other risks, including operational risk,
MAR 5A.5.7RRP
The firm must report the parameters mentioned in MAR 5A.5.6R to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory contact of the firm at the FCA, and obtain an electronic confirmation of receipt.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
SYSC 18.4.4RRP
A firm must allocate to the whistleblowers’ champion the responsibility for ensuring and overseeing the integrity, independence and effectiveness of the firm’s policies and procedures on whistleblowing (see SYSC 18.3 (Internal Arrangements)) including those policies and procedures intended to protect whistleblowers from being victimised because they have disclosed reportable concerns.
BIPRU 9.11.7GRP
(1) This provision contains guidance on the requirement in BIPRU 9.11.6 R (1) that the composition of the pool of exposuressecuritised must be known at all times.(2) The composition should be known sufficiently at the time of purchase for the firm to be able accurately to calculate the risk weighted exposure amounts of the pool under the standardised approach.(3) Thereafter, any change to the composition of the pool during the life of the transaction that would lead to an increase