Related provisions for LR 11.1.5A
641 - 660 of 1078 items.
25Nothing in this appendix relieves firms of the obligation to consider the particular facts and circumstances of each complaint and to consider whether the assessment of loss and compensation should, in the light of those facts and circumstances, be carried out on a different basis. If, however, the facts and circumstances make it appropriate to do so, the FCA's expectation is that firms will apply the approach and standards set out in this appendix, and where they do not, the
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay application fees3.2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised under section 31 of the Act.2
As soon as a SRB agreement provider has provided the written pre-offer document at Stage One to a SRB agreement seller who is in arrears under his regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan on the property to which the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement relates, it must, in a durable medium, immediately notify the mortgage lender, home purchase provider or the providers of other loans that may be secured on the property:(1) explaining that the firm is proposing
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities; |
[Note: article 25 of MiFIR requires the operator of a trading venue to keep relevant data relating to all orders in financial instruments which are advertised through their systems at the disposal of the FCA]4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
An issuer whose registered office is in a third country4 is exempted from DTR 6.1.3 R to DTR 6.1.15 R if:33(1) the law of the third country4 in question lays down equivalent requirements; or3(2) the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a third country4 that the FCA considers as equivalent.3[Note: article 23(1) of the TD]3
The FCA maintains a published list of third countries4, for the purpose of DTR 6.1.16R4, whose laws3 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that third country4 are considered to be equivalent by the FCA3. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:3(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
4It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediary and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.6
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
4A firm must:(1) ensure the MTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) have arrangements to ensure it is adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation and put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks;[Note: article
The FCA interprets the phrase “dealing with” as including having contact with customers5 and extending beyond “dealing” as used in the phrase “dealing in investments”. “Dealing in” is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe in general terms the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
The FCA would expect an individual from overseas to be accompanied on a visit to a customer. TC 2.1.9 R (2) (where it applies)7 provides that the firm will have to be satisfied that the individual has at least three years of up-to-date, relevant experience obtained outside the United Kingdom. However, the remaining provisions of TC 2.1.9 R (2) are disapplied in these circumstances (except for an individual who gives advice to retail clients on retail investment products, gives
The following rules in FEES apply to VJ participants as part of the standard terms, but substituting 'VJ participant' for 'firm':(1) FEES 2.2.1 R (late payment) but substituting 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';2121(2) FEES 2.3.1 R and 2.3.2 R (remission of fees);(3) [deleted]24(4) FEES 5.3.6 R (general levy) but substituting:(a) 'Voluntary Jurisdiction' for 'Compulsory Jurisdiction' ; and(b) 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';2121(5) FEES 5.3.8 R (calculation of general levy) but substituting:24(a)
(1) The FCA takes the view that sections 77, 78 and 79 of the CCA should be read in a way that allows the borrower or hirer to obtain the information needed in order to be properly informed without imposing unnecessary burden on firms.(2) The statement referred to in the relevant section must be prepared according to the information to which it is 'practicable' for the firm to refer. In the FCA's view, this means practicable at the time of the request and includes information
(1) Failure to comply with the provisions means that the agreement becomes unenforceable while the failure to comply persists, and the courts have no discretion to allow enforcement.(2) In such cases, a firm should in no way, either by act or omission, mislead a customer as to the enforceability of the agreement.(3) In particular, a firm should not in such cases either threaten court action or other enforcement of the debt or imply that the debt is enforceable when it is not.(4)
4The FCA also has measures available to it where it considers it is appropriate to take protective or remedial action. These include: (1) where a firm's continuing ability to meet the threshold conditions or where an approved person's or other individual’s1 fitness and propriety1 are called into question: (a) varying and/or cancelling of permission and the withdrawal of a firm’s authorisation (see chapter 8); and (b) the withdrawal of an individual’s status as an approved person
2Where a person who is a shareholder has contravened one or more relevant transparency provisions (as defined in section 89NA(11) of the Act) in respect of shares in a company admitted to trading on a regulated market and the FCA considers the breach to be serious, the FCA may apply to the Court for an order suspending that person’s voting rights as set out in section 89NA of the Act.
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following:
(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2)
similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;
(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and
(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
When assessing a MiFID investment firm’s response to a MiFID complaint, the FCA may have regard to a number of factors, including, the quality of response, as against the above rules, as well as the speed with which it was made.
[Note: subject to a few minor changes reflecting its amended application, this provision replicates DISP 1.6.8G]
The complaints reporting rules also apply to the MiFID complaints of a firm, except that the relevant parts of the report which the firm must provide to the FCA under DISP 1.10.1R must, in relation to MiFID complaints, include information about such complaints received from retail clients, professional clients, and (where relevant) eligible counterparties rather than eligible complainants.
(1) 1This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a firm'sgeneral levy in the 12 months ending on the 31 March in which it obtains permission, or was authorised under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations4or had its permission and/or payment services activities extended (relevant permissions)3 and the following 12 months ending on the 31 March;3 and33(b) the tariff base for the industry blocks that relate to each of the relevant permissions3.3(2)
1The table below sets out the period within which a firm's tariff base is calculated (the data period) for second year levies calculated under FEES 5.8.2R. The example is based on a firm that acquires permission on 1 November 20146and has a financial year ending 31 March. Where valuation dates fall before the firm receives permission it should use projected valuations in calculating its levies.
References in this table to dates or months are references to the latest one occurring before the start of the FCA's financial year unless otherwise stated.
6Type of permission acquired on 1 November |
Tariff base |
Valuation date but for FEES 5.8.2R |
Data period under FEES 5.8.2R |
Insurers - general |
Relevant annual gross premium income and gross technical liabilities6 |
31 March 20146- so projected valuations will be used 6 |
1 November to 31 December 20146. 6 |
Portfolio managers (including those holding client money/ assets and not holding client money/ assets) 6 |
Relevant funds under management |
Valued at 31 December |
Valued at 31 December |
Advisers,6arrangers, dealers or brokers holding and controlling client money and/or assets 6 |
Annual income as defined in FEES 4 Annex 11A6 6 |
31 December. 6 This is because the firm's tariff base is calculated by reference to the firm's financial year end in the calendar year before the start of the FCAfee year. Therefore FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c) applies. 6 6 |
1 November to 31 December but annualised in accordance with FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c)(iii)6 6 |
7[Note: Transitional provisions apply to FEES 5.8.1R, FEES 5.8.2R and FEES 5.8.3G – see FEES TP 13]
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a mortgage on land, where “land” for this purpose means:855(a) in relation to a contract entered into before IP completion
(1) Article 61(3)(c) of the Regulated Activities Order states that credit includes a cash loan and any other form of financial accommodation. Although 'financial accommodation' has a potentially wide meaning, its scope is limited by the terms used in the definition of a regulated mortgage contract set out in PERG 4.4.1 G. Whatever form the financial accommodation may take, article 61(3)(a) envisages that it must include 7an obligation to repay on the part of the individual who
The expression 'as or in connection with a dwelling' set out in PERG 4.4.1G (3) means that loans to buy a small house with a large garden would in general be covered. However, if at the time of entering into the contract the intention was for the garden to be used for some other purpose – for example, if it was intended that a third party were to have use of the garden – the contract would not constitute a regulated mortgage contract. Furthermore, the FCA would not regard a loan
Firms are reminded of the client's best interests rule, which requires the firm to act honestly, fairly and professionally in accordance with the best interests of their clients. For any transactions involving retail clients carried out under this section the FCA expects that:55(1) the firm ensures that relevant collateral is provided by the borrower in favour of the client;(2) the current realisable value of the
safe custody asset2
and of the relevant collateral is monitored
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the IDD7, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors and other senior
A firm should keep a record of, and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA, the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
The conditions referred to in IPRU-INV 13.15.7R are:(1) the subordinated loan must have an original maturity of at least two years or, if it has no fixed term, it is subject to not less than two years' notice of repayment;(2) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must not permit payment of interest unless a firm has at least 120% of its capital resources requirement after that payment2;(3) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must only permit repayment, prepayment
(1) (a) If a depositary performs part of its functions through a branch in an 4EEA State, this is not a delegation by the depositary of its functions to a third party.(b) This is because ‘third party’ in COLL 6.6B.22R means any party that is not part of the same legal entity as the depositary.(2) [deleted]4(3) (a) A depositary that performs part of its functions through a branch in an EEA State 4 should ensure that those arrangements do not impede the depositary’s ability to meet
The requirements of SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA2 on its own initiative) apply to the depositary, under which it must enable the FCA to obtain, on request, all information that the depositary has obtained while discharging its duties and that the FCA considers necessary.[Note: article 26a first paragraph of the UCITS Directive]
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set