Related provisions for SUP 15.11.17

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SUP 3.8.10GRP
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an
SUP 10C.10.9DRP
(1) A firm must use Form E (SUP 10C Annex 7D6) where an approved person:6(a) is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions; and6(b) needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA-designated senior management function;6within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:(a) an FCA controlled function that is a significant-influence function8;(b) an FCA-designated senior management
SYSC 5.2.14GRP
[deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 27.2.12G]84
SUP 11.4.9GRP
The obligations 4in SUP 11.4.2 R andSUP 11.4.2A R apply 4 whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.144
SUP App 3.6.6GRP
An insurance undertaking that effects contracts of insurance covering risks or commitments situated in another EEA State should comply with the notification procedures for the provision of services within that EEA State. The location of risks and commitments is found by reference to the rules set out in paragraph 6 of schedule 12 to the Act, which derive from article 13(13) and (14) of the Solvency II Directive.4 It may be appropriate for insurers to take legal advice as to how
SUP App 3.6.25GRP
(1) 2The FCA is5 of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:66(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF or OTF5 operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's
SUP 15.6.6AGRP
4SUP 15.11.13R(4) adjusts the time when, and how, an SMCR firm6 should make updates under SUP 15.6.4R about notifications under section 64C of the Act (Notification of disciplinary action against certain employees).
SUP 12.8.2GRP
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
SUP 12.8.3RRP
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'
REC 4.2C.1GRP
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
REC 4.2C.3GRP
If a proposed acquirer 3has complied with the obligation to notify, the procedure the FCA5 will follow if it approves or does not approve of that person acquiring or increasing control 3is set out in sections3 301F and 301G 3of the Act.3533
SUP 2.1.4GRP
The FCA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FCA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FCA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations and the CRA. 7These are dealt with in
DEPP 3.2.22AGRP
3If the person subject to enforcement action notifies the RDC that they wish to make an expedited reference to the Tribunal under DEPP 5.1.8GG, the RDC shall decide whether to give a decision notice in the light of any representations by any third party under section 393 of the Act and any other interested party under section 63 or 67 of the Act (see DEPP 5.1.8IG).
SUP 11.2.3GRP
As the approval of the appropriate regulator6 is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator6 still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings
SUP 11.2.5GRP
Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any
COLL 12.4.1RRP
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
COLL 12.4.4RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the fund,2 its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and2(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to
COLL 12.4.8RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations or verification under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations45 or notification or registration