Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
81 - 100 of 611 items.
(1) A rate of interest for the purpose of CONC 3.5.3R (1) is not limited to an annual rate of interest but would include a monthly or daily rate or an APR. It would also include reference to 0% credit (but where the APR is 0% and CONC 3.5.3R(2A) applies, a representative example is not required)4. An amount relating to the cost of credit would include the amount of any fee or charge, or any repayment of credit (where it includes interest or other charges).3[Note: paragraph 6.7
(1) A financial promotion must include the representative APR if it: (a) states or implies that credit is available to individuals who might otherwise consider their access to credit restricted; or323(b) includes a favourable comparison relating to the credit, whether express or implied, with another person, product or service; or3(c) includes an incentive 3to apply for credit or to enter into an agreement under which credit is provided.[Note: regulation 6 of CCAR 2010]3(2) The
(1) A financial promotion must include a clear, concise and prominent3 statement in respect of any obligation to enter into a contract for an ancillary service where:(a) the conclusion of that contract is compulsory in order to obtain the credit or to obtain it on the terms and conditions promoted; and (b) the cost of that ancillary service cannot be determined in advance.[Note: regulation 8 of CCAR 2010](2) The statement in (1) must be presented together with any representative
(1) A financial promotion must not include: (a) the word “overdraft” or any similar expression as describing any agreement for running-account credit, except where an agreement enables a customer to overdraw on a current account;(b) the expression “interest free” or any similar expression indicating that a customer is liable to pay no greater amount in respect of a transaction financed by credit than he would be liable to pay as a cash purchaser for the like transaction, except
Client assets report
Whether in the auditor's opinion |
||
(1) |
the firm has maintained systems adequate to enable it to comply with the custody rules (except CASS 6.7)13, the collateral rules,5 the client money rules3 (except CASS 5.2)13, the debt management client money rules9, the claims management client money rules14 and the mandate rules5 throughout the period ;5 353 |
1
|
(2) |
the firm was in compliance with the custody rules (except CASS 6.7)13, the collateral rules,5 the client money rules3 (except CASS 5.2), the debt management client money rules, the claims management client money rules14 and the mandate rules5,13 at the date as at which the report has been made; 3539 |
1
|
(3) |
in the case of an investment management firm, personal investment firm, a UCITS firm,2securities and futures firm, firm acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF, or IFPRU investment firm8or BIPRU firm8,2 when a subsidiary of the firm is during the period 5a nominee company in whose name custody assets of the firm are registered during the period, 5 that nominee company has maintained throughout the period5 systems for the custody, identification and control of custody assets which: 22785 |
|
(a) |
were5 adequate; and 5 |
|
(b) |
included5 reconciliations at appropriate intervals between the records maintained (whether by the firm or the nominee company) and statements or confirmations from custodians or from the person who maintained5 the record of legal entitlement; and 55 |
|
(4) |
if there has been a secondary pooling event during the period, the firm has 1complied with the rules in943CASS 5.6 and CASS 7A43 (Client money distribution)1,14CASS 11.13 (debt management client money distribution rules)9 and CASS 13.11 (claims management client money distribution rules)14 in relation to that pooling event. 3 |
1
|
(1) 5Whether or not an auditor concludes that one or more of the requirements specified in SUP 3.10.5 R (1) to (4) has or have been met, the auditor must ensure that the client assets report identifies each individual rule in respect of which a breach has been identified.(2) 5If an auditor does not identify a breach of any individual rule, it must include a statement to that effect in the client assets report.
(1) 5The FCA expects that the list of breaches will include every breach of a rule in CASS insofar as that rule is within the scope of the client assets report and is identified in the course of the auditor’s review of the period covered by the report, whether identified by the auditor or disclosed to it by the firm, or by any third party.(2) 5For the purpose of determining whether to qualify its opinion or express an adverse opinion, the FCA would expect an auditor to exercise
Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FCA12 to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:111210(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS11 or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT, ACS11 or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT), the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary (in the case of an ACS)11 or the ICVC and
Subject to certain limited exceptions, where the rules in MCOB 4.8A apply to a firm they restrict execution-only sales (which term is defined to include variations of existing contracts) to cases where:(1) there is no spoken or other interactive dialogue between the firm and the customer during the sale; or(2) if there is spoken or other interactive dialogue between the firm and the customer during the sale:(a) the customer is a high net worth mortgage customer; or(b) the customer
(1) MCOB 4.8A.7 R does not apply in the case of a variation of a regulated mortgage contract, provided that:(a) the variation would not involve the customer taking on additional borrowing beyond the amount currently outstanding under the existing regulated mortgage contract, other than to finance any product fee or arrangement fee for the proposed new or varied contract; and(b) where the variation will (in whole or part) change from one interest rate to another, the firm has presented
A firm must not enter into or arrange an execution-only sale for a regulated mortgage contract unless, except as provided in MCOB 4.8A.15 R:(1) for a new regulated mortgage contract not falling within MCOB 4.8A.10 R, the customer has identified the regulated mortgage contract he wishes to purchase, specifying to the firm at least the following information:(a) the name of the mortgage lender;(b) the rate of interest;(c) the interest rate type (that is, whether fixed, variable or
A firm which intends to transact execution-only sales in regulated mortgage contracts must have in place and operate in accordance with a clearly defined policy which:(1) sets out the amount of business the firm reasonably expects to transact by way of execution-only sales and the steps to be taken by the firm if that business exceeds the expected levels; and(2) sets out its processes and procedures for ensuring compliance with the rules in MCOB 4.8A; in particular:(a) how it
(1) Whenever a firmenters into or arranges an execution-only sale for a regulated mortgage contract, it must make and maintain a record of:(a) the information provided by the customer which satisfies MCOB 4.8A.14R (1), (2) or (3);(b) the information in durable medium in MCOB 4.8A.14R (4);(c) (where applicable) the confirmation by the customer in MCOB 4.8A.14R (5); and(d) any advice from the firm which the customer rejected, including the reasons why it was rejected, before deciding
If a listed company enters into a related party transaction, the listed company must:(1) make a notification in accordance with LR 10.4.1 R (Notification of class 2 transactions) that contains the details required by that rule and also:(a) the name of the related party; and(b) details of the nature and extent of the related party's interest in the transaction or arrangement;(2) send a circular to its shareholders containing the information required by LR 13.3 and LR 13.6;(3) obtain
(1) This rule applies to a related party transaction if each of the percentage ratios is less than 5%, but one or more of the percentage ratios exceeds 0.25%.(2) Where this rule applies, LR 11.1.7 R does not apply but instead the listed company must:8(a) [deleted]88(b) before entering into the transaction or arrangement, obtain8 written confirmation from a sponsor7 that the terms of the proposed transaction or arrangement with the related party are fair and reasonable as far as
(1) If a listed company enters into transactions or arrangements with the same related party (and any of its associates) in any 12 month period and the transactions or arrangements have not been approved by shareholders the transactions or arrangements, including transactions or arrangements falling under LR 11.1.10 R, or small related party transactions under LR 11 Annex 1.1R (1), 6 must be aggregated.(2) If any percentage ratio is 5% or more for the aggregated transactions or
For the purposes of the overall liquidity adequacy rule, liquidity resources are not confined to the amount or value of a firm's marketable, or otherwise realisable, assets. Rather, in assessing the adequacy of those resources, a firm should have regard to the overall character of the resources available to it which enable it to meet its liabilities as they fall due. Therefore, for the purposes of that rule, a firm should ensure that:(1) it holds sufficient assets which are
The overall liquidity adequacy rule is expressed to apply to each firm on a solo basis. Each firm must be able to satisfy that rule relying solely on its own liquidity resources. Where the firm is an incoming EEA firm or a third country BIPRU firm, compliance with the overall liquidity adequacy rule with respect to the UK branch must be achieved relying solely on liquidity resources that satisfy the conditions in BIPRU 12.2.3R.
BIPRU 12.5 sets out the ILAS framework. That section describes some of the stress tests that a standard ILAS BIPRU firm must carry out in conducting its ILAA and identifies a number of sources of liquidity risk in relation to which a firm is required to assess the impact of those stresses. For a standard ILAS BIPRU firm, the requirements in BIPRU 12.5 are in addition to the stress testing requirements in BIPRU 12.4. The rules in BIPRU 12.5 require a standard ILAS BIPRU firm
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons, and on recognised investment exchanges that are operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility,13 in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9122 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the FCA12, in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
The FCA has made rules providing that compensation costs and specific costs attributable to the classes (other than the deposit acceptors’ contribution class),14 and which exceed the classlevy limits, may be allocated to the retail pool. Levies allocated to the retail pool are then allocated amongst the other such classes, together with the deposit acceptors’ contribution class.14 The deposit acceptors’ contribution class14 may contribute to compensation costs levies or specific
The purpose of REC 3.14 is to ensure that the FCA3is informed of planned changes to the services a UK recognised body intends to provide and of the normal hours of operation of those services. Unplanned suspensions of those services, unplanned changes in hours of operation and events causing a UK recognised body to be unable to provide those services should be notified to the FCA3under the rules in REC 3.15.33
Where a UK RIE proposes to admit to trading (or to cease to admit to trading) by means of its facilities:(1) a specified investment (other than a security or an option in relation to a security); or(2) a type of security or a type of option in relation to a security; it must give the FCA3notice of that event, and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.6 R to the FCA3, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or
Where a UK recognised body proposes to provide (or to cease to provide) clearing facilitation services3 in respect of:3(1) a specified investment (other than a security or an option in relation to a security); or (2) a type of security or a type of option in relation to a security;it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.6 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members
Where a UK recognised body proposes to make (or to cease to make) arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that recognised body must give the FCA3notice of that event, and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.9 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them).3
The requirements imposed on a CASS debt management firm that holds client money vary depending on whether a firm is classified as a CASS small debt management firm or a CASS large debt management firm in CASS 11.2.3 R (CASS debt management firm types). CASS 11.1.4 R to CASS 11.1.6 R indicate which rules in the debt management client money chapter apply to which category of firm.
Subject to CASS 11.1.6 R, only the rules and guidance in the debt management client money chapter listed in the table below apply to CASS small debt management firms.
Reference |
Rule |
Application |
|
Firm classification |
|
Responsibility for CASS operational oversight |
|
Definition of client money and discharge of fiduciary duty |
|
Organisational requirements |
|
Statutory trust |
|
Selecting an approved bank at which to hold client money |
|
Client bank account acknowledgement letters |
|
Segregation and the operation of client money accounts |
|
Payments to creditors |
|
CASS 11.11.1 R to CASS 11.11.12 R , CASS 11.11.30 R and CASS 11.11.32 G |
Records, accounts and reconciliations |
CASS 11 resolution pack |
|
Client money distribution in the event of a failure of a firm or approved bank |
(1) An authorised professional firm regulated by the Law Society of England and Wales, the Law Society of Scotland or the Law Society of Northern Ireland that, with respect to its regulated activities, is subject to the following rules of its designated professional body, must comply with those rules and, if it does so, it will be deemed to comply with the debt management client money chapter.(2) The relevant rules are: (a) if the firm is regulated by the Law Society of England
1This chapter applies, unless otherwise stated in or in relation to a rule, to:(1) a firm with respect to consumer credit lending;(2) a firm with respect to consumer hiring;(3) a firm with respect to operating an electronic system in relation to lending, in relation to a borrower under a P2P agreement;(4) a firm with respect to debt collecting.
(1) In accordance with CONC 1.2.2 Rfirms must ensure that their employees and agents comply with CONC and must take reasonable steps to ensure that other persons acting on the firm's behalf act in accordance with CONC.(2) The rule in CONC 1.2.2 R is particularly important in relation to the requirements in CONC 7, for example, in dealing with an individual from whom the person referred to in the rule is seeking to collect a debt.(3) In this chapter the expression “arrears” includes
(1) 2In this chapter, except for CONC 7.6.15AG:(a) a reference to a borrower, a customer or a hirer includes a reference to an individual other than the borrower or the hirer (in this chapter, referred to as “the guarantor”) who has provided a guarantee or an indemnity (or both) in relation to:(i) a regulated credit agreement; or(ii) a regulated consumer hire agreement; or(iii) a P2P agreement in respect of which the borrower is an individual;where it would not do so but for this
The FCA5 recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.1993
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
GEN 1.3.2 R operates on the FCA's5rules. It does not affect the FCA's5 powers to take action against a firm in an emergency, based on contravention of other requirements and standards under the regulatory system. For example, the FCA5 may exercise its own-initiative power in appropriate cases to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission9 based on a failure or potential failure to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 7 (Individual9 requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's4 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.44
5A firm must:(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FCA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
(1) A firm20 must allocate to a director or senior manager the function of:8818(a) having responsibility for oversight of the firm's compliance; and(b) reporting to the governing body in respect of that responsibility.1(2) In 10 (1) "compliance" means compliance with the firm’s obligations under the regulatory system in relation to which the FCA has responsibility.20
(1) A firm must take reasonable care to make and retain adequate records of matters and dealings (including accounting records) which are the subject of requirements and standards under the regulatory system.(2) Subject to (3) and to any other record-keeping rule in the Handbook, the records required by (1) or by such other rule must be capable of being reproduced in the English language on paper.(3) If a firm's records relate to business carried on from an establishment in a
So that a CASS debt management firm may check that it has sufficient money segregated in its client bank accounts to meet its obligations to clients for whom it is undertaking debt management activity, it is required periodically to carry out reconciliations of its internal records and accounts to check that the total amount of client money that it should have segregated in client bank accounts is equal to the total amount of client money it actually has segregated in client bank
For a CASS small debt management firm to demonstrate it has maintained its records and accounts in a way envisaged by CASS 11.11.3 R, it should carry out checks of its internal records and accounts that are reasonable and proportionate to its business. CASS 11.11.8 R provides a rule that a CASS small debt management firm is obliged to follow to meet this obligation.
This table belongs to MCOB 9.1.3 R
Section of MCOB 9 |
Applies in relation to an equity release transaction as set out in the following rules:2 2 |
(1) 3This chapter does not apply to an MCD lifetime mortgage, except as set out in (2) to (3), below.(2) MCOB 9.4.33 R, MCOB 9.4.35 R, MCOB 9.4.62 R and MCOB 9.4.63 R apply to the extent specified by MCOB 5A.6.2 R.(3) MCOB 9.6 to MCOB 9.8 apply, except for rules that modify or replace MCOB 7.6.7R to MCOB 7.6.17R (because those rules do not apply to an MCD mortgage lender or an MCD mortgage credit intermediary, MCOB 7B applies instead: see MCOB 7.1.2AR and MCOB 7.1.2BG).
(1) 3Whenever a firm provides a customer with information specific to the amount that the customer wants to borrow on a particular regulated mortgage contract following an assessment of the customer's needs and circumstances in order to comply with MCOB 4.7A.2 R, it must give, clearly and prominently, the following information:(a) the same information on the firm’s product range as is required by MCOB 4.4A.1R (1), MCOB 4.4A.2 R and MCOB 4.4A.4R (1); and(b) that the customer has
(1) 3Whenever, as part of an execution-only sale (or potential execution-only sale), a customer provides a firm with the information in MCOB 4.8A.14R (1), (2) or (3) the firm must inform the customer, clearly and prominently, that the customer has the right to request an illustration for any regulated mortgage contract which the firm is able to offer the customer.(2) Whenever, as part of an execution-only sale (or potential execution-only sale), a high net worth mortgage customer
(1) 3In order to demonstrate compliance with MCOB 5.4.18AR (1), a firm may wish to consider, for example, doing one or more of the following: give the messages to the customer in a durable medium; build the requirements into the firm's training of staff, as evidenced by its training and compliance manuals; insert appropriate prompts into paper-based or automated sales systems; have procedures in place to monitor compliance by its staff with that rule. What is required in each
The rules on the content of an illustration at MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) mean that if the regulated mortgage contract requires the customer to take out a tied product, the illustration must include an accurate quotation or a reasonable estimate of the payments the customer would need to make for the tied product (see MCOB 5.6.52 R (2) where the tied product is a repayment strategy and MCOB 5.6.74 R where the tied product is insurance).3 If it is not possible to include
(1) If any of the details relating to:(a) the arrangements in relation to any of a firm'sFCA-approved SMF managers; or(b) any FCA-designated senior management functions of one of its FCA-approved SMF managers;are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R4).(2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This rule does not apply to anything required to be notified under
(1) If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of the fitness and propriety of an FCA-approved SMF manager, or of candidate to be one (see FIT), it must inform the FCA either:(a) on Form D; or(b) if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA, by email or fax;as soon as practicable and, in any case, within seven business days.(2) This rule does not apply to anything required to be notified under SUP 10C.14.5R
If a firm is required to notify the FCA about an FCA-approved SMF manager under any of the following:(1) section 63(2A) of the Act (Duty to notify regulator of grounds for withdrawal of approval); or2(2) [deleted]2(3) section 64C of the Act (Requirement for 4authorised persons to notify regulator of disciplinary action);it must give that notification:(4) under SUP 10C.14.5R (Form C) if that rule applies; (5) under SUP 10C.14.7R (Qualified Form C) if that rule applies; or(6) (in
The records maintained under this section, including the sub-pool disclosure documents, are a record of the firm that must be kept in a durable medium for at least five years following the date on which client money was last held by the firm for a sub-pool to which those records or the sub-pool disclosure document applied.
The table below sets out how DISP 1.1A applies to MiFID complaints relating to:
- (1)
the activities of a MiFID investment firm carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom;
- (2)
the equivalent business of a third country investment firm where the complaint is received from a retail client or an elective professional client;
- (3)
activities carried on from a branch of a UK firm in another EEA State; and
- (4)
activities carried on from a branch of an EEA firm in the United Kingdom.
Table: Application of DISP 1.1A to the MiFID business of firms in the UK, and the equivalent business of third country investment firms, branches of UK firms and UK branches of EEA firms
(1) Provision |
(2) Provision applies to the MiFID business of a firm carried on from an establishment in the UK? |
(3) Provision applies to the equivalent third country business of a third country investment firm where the complaint is received from a retail client or an elective professional client? |
(4) Provision applies to a branch of a UK firm in another EEA State? |
(5) Provision applies to a branch of an EEA firm in the UK? |
1.1A.10EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.11R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.12EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.13EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.14G |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
1.1A.15G |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
1.1A.16EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.17EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.18EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.19G |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
1.1A.20R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.21G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.22R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
No |
1.1A.23R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.24EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.25EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.26R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.27G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.28R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.29EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.30EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.31R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.32G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.33G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.34G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.35R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.36R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.37EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.38EU |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
1.1A.39R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
1.1A.40R |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
No |
1.1A.41G |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
No |
1.1A.42R |
No |
No |
Yes |
No |
Notes |
||||
(1) The provisions marked “EU” in the table are ‘directly applicable’ which means they apply to all MiFID investment firms in relation to MiFID complaints by virtue of the MiFID Org Regulation. |
||||
(2) This table should be read in conjunction with the rules and guidance in DISP 1.1A.1R to DISP 1.1A.6R. |
||||
The complaints reporting rules also apply to the MiFID complaints of a firm, except that the relevant parts of the report which the firm must provide to the FCA under DISP 1.10.1R must, in relation to MiFID complaints, include information about such complaints received from retail clients, professional clients, and (where relevant) eligible counterparties rather than eligible complainants.
Table of application
This table belongs to COLL 6.5.1 R.
Depositary of an ICVC |
Authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 3 |
Depositary of an AUT or ACS3 3 |
||||
6.5.1R |
x |
x |
x |
x |
x |
x |
6.5.3R |
x |
x |
x |
x |
||
6.5.4R |
x |
x |
x |
|||
6.5.5R |
x |
x |
||||
6.5.6R |
x |
x |
||||
6.5.7R |
x |
x |
||||
6.5.8R |
x |
x |
||||
6.5.9R |
x |
x |
||||
6.5.10R |
x |
x |
x |
x |
||
Note: "x" means "applies", but not every paragraph in every rule will necessarily apply. |
||||||
If the ICVC ceases to have any directors, the depositary may:(1) retain the services of an authorised person to carry out the functions referred to in COLL 6.6.3 R (3)(a) and (b); or(2) manage the scheme property itself on behalf of the ICVC until a director is appointed or the winding up of the ICVC is commenced provided it is not prohibited from doing so by any law or rule.
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers