Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
41 - 60 of 538 items.
Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the MiFID4, UCITS Directive10, MCD9 or AIFMD6 is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied.2146688666
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the appropriate UK regulator12 and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).112
4Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, it must not:5(1) make a change in the details referred to in regulation 5A(1)(a); or5(2) use, for the first time, any tied agent to provide services in the United Kingdom; or5(3) cease to use tied agents to provide services in the United Kingdom;5unless it has complied with the relevant requirements in regulation 5A(3).5
7Where an EEA AIFM is providing cross-border services to manage an AIF in the UK, it must not make a material change to:(1) the particulars of the programme of operations to be carried out in the UK, including the description of the particular EEA activities; or(2) the identity of the AIFs that the EEA AIFM intends to manage;unless it has complied with the relevant requirement in regulation 7A(3).
7Where an EEA AIFM is providing cross-border services to market an AIF in the UK, it must not make a material change to:(1) the documents and information referred to in Annex IV to AIFMD; or(2) the statement that the EEA AIFM is authorised to manage AIFs with a particular management strategy; unless it has complied with the relevant requirement in regulation 7A(3).
9As required by regulation 7B(1), where an incoming EEA firm is providing cross border services under the MCD in the UK, it must not make a material change to any of the matters referred to in regulation 2(8)(b) to (e) or regulation 3(6)(b) to (e), unless it has complied with the relevant requirements.
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the appropriate regulator17 in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).46101710101010
If a person decides10 to acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1)4, he must obtain the appropriate regulator's17 approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the appropriate regulator17 has approved of it10is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).10101710174610
6The appropriate regulator17 may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 191D17 of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:171017(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed, or which are traded or admitted to trading on a MTF
6Where the appropriate regulator17 approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:17(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the appropriate regulator17 when a change in control actually occurs; and17(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.At
A section 178 notice10 given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the appropriate regulator17 for the relevant application. 4610171017
10A notice given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is reducing or ceasing to have control over a UK domestic firm, as set out in SUP 11.4.2Ror SUP 11.4.2A R must:17(1) be in writing; and(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FCA1is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.1
(1) Before an EEA firm5(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)53exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act,
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 13A.4.5 R is to enable the FSA to supervise the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions on an ongoing basis. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 G (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must decide and be responsible for adopting and implementing all the arrangements and organisational decisions that are necessary to ensure compliance with rules drawn up by the EEA State in which that scheme is established, in implementation of its obligations under articles 19(3) and 19(4) of the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 19(6) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written contract1 it has entered into with the depositary1 of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in article 22(2)1 of the UCITS Directive; and (b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a member of the management body4, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: article 45(8)4 of MiFID]3
(1) Members of the management body4 include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a member of the management body4.(2) A member of the
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his or her4 date of birth;(3) where applicable,4 a description of the responsibilities which he or she4 will have in the post to which he or she4 is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body;43(4) where applicable,
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
UK RIEs1which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17. 1
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FCA1 may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules- if it appears to [the FCA] that it could take action, [the FCA may direct it to do so,1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and [the FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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The FCA1 may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FCA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FCA] may direct it not to do so.1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and the [FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE :1(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK RIE1 has not taken action under its default rules as a result of this event or of the matters giving
The procedure is that the FCA1 must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: 1(1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FCA1 that it proposes to take action forthwith; or1(3) is directed to take action by the FCA1 under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; 1the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market
The exemption applies whether or not the financial promotion is made from the United Kingdom. However, there is the exception that, if it is an unsolicited real time financial promotion, it must be made from a place outside the United Kingdom and be for the purposes of a business carried on entirely outside the United Kingdom. To give effect to the principle of country of origin regulation of information society services as required by the E-Commerce Directive, article 12(7) of
Articles 12(3) and (4) of the Financial Promotion Order (subject to article 12(5) – see PERG 8.12.8 G) have the effect that, where a financial promotion is directed from a place outside the United Kingdom, it will be conclusive proof that it is not directed at persons in the United Kingdom even if it is received by a person in the United Kingdom, if:(1) the financial promotion is not referred to in or directly accessible from another communication (for example, an advertisement
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
Where a financial promotion is directed from within the United Kingdom, articles 12(3) and (4) also state (subject to article 12(5) – see PERG 8.12.8 G) that there can be conclusive proof that the financial promotion is directed only at persons outside the United Kingdom. This will be the case if, in addition to the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) and PERG 8.12.5G (2), the financial promotion is accompanied by an indication that:(1) it is directed only at persons outside
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
The purpose of these 1exemptions1 is to ensure that, subject to certain conditions, the restriction in section 21 of the Act does not apply to those who merely transport the financial promotions of other persons. Obvious examples here are postal and Internet service providers, courier companies and telecommunications companies. PERG 8.6.5 G explains that such persons may not be regarded as communicating a financial promotion simply because they have distributed it. Article 18
Article 20B gives effect to the provisions of the E- Commerce Directive by exemptingelectronic commerce communications made from an establishment in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to an ECA recipient in the United Kingdom2. However, article 20B does not apply to the following communications:2(1) an advertisement by the operator of a UCITS of units in that scheme; or(2) an invitation or inducement to enter into a contract of insurance where:(a) it is made by an undertaking
The appropriate regulator will include a regional government or local authority in the list in BIPRU 3 Annex 2 R where there is no difference in risk between exposures to that body and exposures to the central government of the United Kingdom because of the specific revenue-raising powers of the regional government or local authority, and the existence of specific institutional arrangements the effect of which is to reduce the risk of default.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point
A firm must treat an exposure to a regional government or local authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom as an exposure to the central government in whose jurisdiction that regional government or local authority is established if that regional government or local authority is included on the list of regional governments and local authorities drawn up by the competent authority in that EEA State under a CRD implementation measure with respect to point 9 of Part 1
In exceptional circumstances a firm may treat an exposure to a public sector entity established in the United Kingdom as an exposure to the central government of the United Kingdom if there is no difference in risk between exposures to that body and exposures to the central government of the United Kingdom because of the existence of an appropriate guarantee by the central government.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point 15]
A firm may assign to an exposure to an institution formed under the law of the United Kingdom of a residual maturity of 3 months or less denominated and funded in pounds sterling a risk weight that is one category less favourable than the preferential risk weight, as described in BIPRU 3.4.5 R (Exposures in the national currency of the borrower), assigned to exposures to the central government of the United Kingdom.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point 37]
(1) 4This paragraph provides guidance on BIPRU 3.4.56A R.(2) For the purposes of BIPRU 3.4.56A R (2), a firm may use the FTSE UK gilt 10-year yield index which the Council of Mortgage Lenders makes available to its members.(3) If a firm offers a variable interest rate on a lifetime mortgage, it should calculate an average interest rate in a way which is consistent with the calculation of the discount rate.(4) To determine the projected number of years to maturity of the exposure,
A firm may not treat an exposure as fully and completely secured by residential property located in the United Kingdom for the purpose of BIPRU 3.4.56 R or BIPRU 3.4.58 R unless the amount of the exposure or of the secured part of the exposure referred to in BIPRU 3.4.56 R or BIPRU 3.4.58 R, as the case may be, is 80% or less of the value of the residential property on which it is secured.
(1) The application of BIPRU 3.4.81 R may be illustrated by an example. If a firm has a mortgage exposure of £100,000 secured on residential property in the United Kingdom that satisfies the criteria listed in BIPRU 3.4.56 R to BIPRU 3.4.80 R and the value of that property is £100,000, then £80,000 of that exposure may be treated as fully and completely secured and risk weighted at 35%. The remaining £20,000 may be risk weighted at 75% provided the exposure meets the criteria
When a firm receives
a client entitlement on behalf
of a client, it must pay any
part of it which is client money:(1) for client entitlements received in the United Kingdom, into a client
bank account in accordance with CASS 5.5.5 R;
or(2) for client entitlements received outside the United Kingdom, into any bank account operated
by the firm, provided that such client money is:(a) paid
to, or in accordance with, the instructions of the client concerned;
or(b) paid
into a client
A firm may
hold client money with a bank
that is not an approved bank if
all the following conditions are met:(1) the client money relates to one or more insurance
transactions which are subject to the law or market practice of a jurisdiction
outside the United Kingdom;(2) because
of the applicable law or market practice of that overseas jurisdiction, it
is not possible to hold the client money in
a client bank account with an approved bank;(3) the firm holds the money with
such
A firm owes
a duty of care to a client when
it decides where to place client money.
The review required by CASS 5.5.43 R is intended to ensure that the risks inherent
in placing client money with
a bank are minimised or appropriately diversified by requiring a firm to consider carefully the bank or banks
with which it chooses to place client money.
For example, a firm which is
likely only to hold relatively modest amounts of client
money will be likely to be able to satisfy this
In the case of a client
bank account in the United
Kingdom, if the bank does not provide the acknowledgement referred
to in CASS 5.5.49 R within 20 business days after
the firm dispatched the notice,
the firm must withdraw all money standing to the credit of the account
and deposit it in a client bank account with
another bank as soon as possible.
A firm must
not hold, for a consumer5, client money in
a client bank account outside
the United Kingdom, unless
the firm has previously disclosed
to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client
agreement11 or otherwise in writing):5511(1) that
his money may be deposited in
a client bank account outside
the United Kingdom but that
the client may notify the firm that he does not wish his money to be held in a particular jurisdiction;(2) that
in such circumstances, the
A firm must
not undertake any transaction for a consumer5 that involves client money being
passed to another broker or settlement agent located
in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom,
unless the firm has previously
disclosed to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client agreement 4or otherwise in writing):554(1) that
his client money may be passed
to a person outside the United Kingdom but the client may
notify the firm that he does
not wish his money to be
If a client has
notified a firm before entering
into a transaction that he does not wish his money to
be passed to another broker or settlement
agent located in a particular jurisdiction, the firm must either:(1) hold
the client money in a client bank account in the United
Kingdom or a jurisdiction to which the money has
not objected and pay its own money to
the firm's own account with
the broker, agent or counterparty; or(2) return
the money to, or to the order
of, the clien
The client
money resource, for the purposes of CASS
5.5.63 R (1)(a),2 is:(1) the
aggregate of the balances on the firm's client money
bank accounts, as at the close of business on the previous business day and, if held in accordance with CASS
5.4, designated investments (valued
on a prudent and consistent basis) together with client
money held by a third party in accordance with CASS 5.5.34 R;
and(2) (but
only if the firm is comparing
the client money resource with
its client's
(1) A function is an FCA-specified significant-harm function for a UK relevant authorised person only to the extent:2(a) it is performed by a person from an establishment of the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom; or2(b) the person performing that function is dealing with a client of the firm in the United Kingdom from an establishment of the firm (or its appointed representative) overseas.2(2) A function is an FCA-specified significant-harm function
3The FCA interprets the phrase ‘a client of the firm in the United Kingdom’ in SYSC 5.2.19R as referring to:(1) for a client which is a body corporate, its office or branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) for a client who is an individual, a client who is in the United Kingdom at the time of the dealing.
(1) 3None of the FCA-specified significant-harm functions extend to an individual (“P”) in relation to a firm if:(a) P is based outside the United Kingdom for the firm; and(b) in a 12-month period, P spends no more than 30 days performing what would otherwise be an FCA-specified significant-harm function for that firm within the territorial scope of this section as described in SYSC 5.2.19R.(2) Paragraph (1) only applies to the extent that P is appropriately supervised by: (a)
(1) 3The FCA would expect an individual from overseas using the temporary UK role rule in SYSC 5.2.28AR to be accompanied on a visit to a customer in the United Kingdom.(2) An individual benefiting from the temporary UK role rule in SYSC 5.2.28AR may still be subject to the requirements of TC (Training and competence). However, TC 2.1.9R gives an exemption from certain qualification requirements in TC to an individual benefiting from the temporary UK role rule.
(1) If a function falls into more than one of the FCA-specified significant-harm functions in the table in SYSC 5.2.30R, all of those FCA-specified significant-harm functions apply to it.(2) For example, if a person's job involves both FCA-specified significant-harm function (5) (functions requiring qualifications) and (7) (material risk takers), the emergency appointments rule (SYSC 5.2.27R) does not apply to that job.(3) Another example is the rule about the territorial scope
(1) The function of acting as a senior manager, with significant responsibility for a significant business unit, 2 is an FCA-specified significant-harm function.2(2) For a non-UK relevant authorised person’sbranch in the United Kingdom, the significant management function is limited to business units of the branch.2
For the purposes of the definition of the significant management FCA-specified significant-harm function, the following additional factors about the firm should be considered:(1) the size and significance of the firm's business in the United Kingdom – for example, a firm carrying on designated investment business may have a large number of certification employees (for example, in excess of 100 individuals);(2) the number of regulated activities carried on, or proposed to be carried
(1) Each function involving an activity for which there is a qualification requirement as specified in TC App 1.1.1R (Activities and Products/Sectors to which TC applies) is an FCA-specified significant-harm function.2(2) For a non-UK relevant authorised person, each function involving an activity for which there would have been a qualification requirement, as specified in (1) if the firm had been a UK relevant authorised person, is an FCA-specified significant-harm function.
(1) SYSC 5.2.39R (Functions requiring qualifications) does not apply to a UK relevant authorised person where TC does not apply.2(2) SYSC 5.2.39R (Functions requiring qualifications) applies to a non-UK relevant authorised person irrespective of whether the function in TC App 1.1.1R (Activities and Products/Sectors to which TC applies) applies to incoming EEA firms or overseas firms for the purposes of TC.2
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
UK recognised bodies are likely to develop and adapt their businesses in response to customer demand and new market opportunities. Where such developments involve changes to the way the UK recognised body operates, they are likely to involve changes to the way it satisfies the1 recognised body requirements.22
The senior personnel of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM,5 or of the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1must be of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced as to ensure the sound and prudent management of the firm.[Note: article 9(1)(4) 9of MiFID, article 7(1)(b) of the UCITS Directive,9 article 8(1)(c) of AIFMD9 and article 91(1) 9of CRD4]35
A common platform firm, a management company, a full-scope UK AIFM53 and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1must ensure that its management is undertaken by at least two persons meeting the requirements laid down in SYSC 4.2.1 R and : 9(a) for a full-scope UK AIFM, SYSC 4.2.7R; or9(b) for a common platform firm, SYSC 4.3A.3R.9[Note: article 9(6) 9first paragraph of MiFID, article 7(1)(b) of the UCITS Directive3, article 8(1)(c) of AIFMD5and article 13(1) of CRD]566
At least two independent minds should be applied to the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 and the UK branch of a third country firm9. Where a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the FCA9 will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business. Each should
Where there are more than two individuals directing the business of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 or the UK branch of a third country firm9,1 the FCA9 does not regard it as necessary for all of these individuals to be involved in all decisions relating to the determination of strategy and general direction. However, at least two individuals should be involved in all such decisions. Both individuals' judgement should be engaged so that major
If a common platform firm, (other than a credit institution or AIFM investment firm5) or the UK branch of a third country firm9, is:11(1) a natural person; or(2) a legal person managed by a single natural person; then:9(3) it must have alternative arrangements in place which ensure: 9(a) sound and prudent management of the firm; and9(b) adequate consideration of the interests of clients and the integrity of the market; and9(4) the natural persons concerned must be of sufficiently
Table: FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities for third-country relevant authorised persons.
FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility in relation to the branch |
Explanation |
Equivalent PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility |
(1) Responsibility for the firm’s performance of its obligations under the senior management regime |
The senior management regime means the requirements of the regulatory system applying to relevant authorised persons insofar as they relate to SMF managers performing designated senior management functions, including SUP 10C (FCA senior management regime for approved persons in relevant authorised persons). This responsibility includes: (1) compliance with conditions and time limits on approval; (2) compliance with the requirements about the statements of responsibilities (but not the allocation of responsibilities recorded in them);3 (3) compliance by the firm with its obligations under section 60A of the Act (Vetting of candidates by relevant authorised persons); and3 3(4) compliance by the firm with the requirements in SYSC 22 (Regulatory references) so far as they relate to the senior management regime, including the giving of references to another firm about an SMF manager or former SMF manager. |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(1) |
(2) Responsibility for the firm’s performance of its obligations under the employee certification regime |
The employee certification regime means the requirements of sections 63E and 63F of the Act (Certification of employees) and all other requirements of the regulatory system about the matters dealt with in those sections, including:3 3(1) SYSC 5.2 (Certification Regime); 3(2) the requirements in SYSC 22 (Regulatory references) so far as they relate to the employee certification regime, including the giving of references to another firm about a certification employee or former certification employee; and |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(2) |
(3) Responsibility for compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system about the management responsibilities map |
This responsibility does not include allocating responsibilities recorded in it. |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(3) |
(4) Responsibility for management of the firm’s risk management processes in the UK |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(4) |
|
(5) Responsibility for the firm’s compliance with the UKregulatory system applicable to the firm |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(5) |
|
(6) Responsibility for the escalation of correspondence from the PRA, FCA and other regulators4 in respect of the firm to the governing body and/or the management body of the firm or, where appropriate, of the parent undertaking or holding company of the firm’sgroup |
This includes taking steps to ensure that the senior management of the firm and, where applicable, the group, are made aware of any views expressed by the regulatory bodies and any steps taken by them in relation to the branch, firm or group. |
PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(6) |
(7) Local responsibility for the firm’s policies and procedures for countering the risk that the firm might be used to further financial crime |
(A) This includes the function in SYSC 6.3.8R (a firm must allocate overall responsibility to a director or senior manager within the firm for the establishment and maintenance of effective anti-money laundering systems and controls), if that rule applies to the firm. (B) The firm may allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO but does not have to. (C) If the firm does not allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the MLRO. (D) Local responsibility is defined in SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions). |
None |
(8) Local responsibility for the firm’s compliance with CASS |
(A) This responsibility only applies to a firm to which CASS applies. (B) A firm may include in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility whichever of the following functions apply to the firm: (1) CASS 1A.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS small firm); (2) CASS 1A.3.1AR (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm); (3) CASS 11.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for certain CASS small debt management firms); or (4) CASS 11.3.4R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS large debt management firm); but it does not have to. (C) If the firm does not include the functions in (B) in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the person performing the functions in (B) that apply to the firm. (D) Local responsibility is defined in SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions). |
None |
(1) A firm must ensure that, at all times, one or more of its SMF managers has overall responsibility (subject to the branch’sgoverning body) for each of the activities, business areas and management functions of the branch that are under the management of the branch’sgoverning body.(2) A firm must ensure that, at all times, one or more of its SMF managers has responsibility for each of the activities, business areas and management functions of the branch not covered by (1).(3)
(1) SYSC 4.8.10R(1) relates to the allocation of overall responsibility for activities, business areas or functions of the branch which are under the management of the branch’sgoverning body.(2) SYSC 4.8.10R(1) refers to overall responsibility. (3) As explained in SYSC 4.8.10R(4), a person who has overall responsibility for a function under SYSC 4.8.10R(1) will have local responsibility for that function. (4) Overall responsibility means the same as it does in SYSC 4.7.8R (Allocation
SYSC 4.7.13G and SYSC 4.7.14G (meaning of overall responsibility for UK relevant authorised persons) apply to the meaning of overall responsibility in this section but as if:(1) references to the firm were to the branch; and(2) references to the chief executive were to the branchmanager or the person performing the PRA’s Head of Overseas Branch designated senior management function.
(1) It is common for a branch to carry out only part of a transaction. For instance, a transaction may be booked in a branch but negotiated and arranged elsewhere or vice versa.(2) When allocating responsibility to an SMF manager for activities in relation to transactions under SYSC 4.8.10R, a firm should not exclude a transaction which is arranged, booked or negotiated in the branch merely because other elements of the transaction occur outside the United Kingdom.
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility, organised trading facility4 or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.[Note:MiFID RTS 3 and MiFID ITS 4, Annex
2This chapter does not apply to an EEA relevant authorised person if and in so far as the question of whether a person is fit and proper to perform a particular function in relation to that firm is reserved to an authority in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom under:(1) the Single Market Directives;(2) the Treaty;(3) the auction regulation;4(4) the benchmarks regulation.4
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA relevant authorised person, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA relevant authorised person, acting
(1) 2Generally, where an overseas manager of a non-UK relevant authorised person has responsibilities in relation to its branch in the United Kingdom that are strategic only, they will not need to be an FCA-approved SMF manager.(2) However, where an overseas manager is responsible for implementing that strategy for its branch in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to an SMF manager in the United Kingdom, they will potentially be performing an FCA controlled
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation7. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)The chapter does not, apart from in SUP 13A.6G (rules
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) [deleted]141212(aA) [deleted]1212(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the CRD8; or282(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4;9 or114(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive9; or11(f) authorised in Gibraltar under AIFMD.11(g) authorised in Gibraltar
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the appropriate UK regulator16 will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. 166(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the appropriate UK regulator's16 interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the auction regulation,7 the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act.
Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) gives notice of that fact to the appropriate UK regulator7;7the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FCA7 by email to 7emissionstrading@fca.org.uk7 when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
4 The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 14.6.3A R is to inform the FCA7 that it may discontinue its supervision of the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).7
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the CRD2, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution6 meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution. The chapter does not provide guidance for Solvency II firms. Solvency II firms should
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FCA's5 interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.5