Related provisions for BIPRU 3.4.103
161 - 180 of 272 items.
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
A firm must develop methodologies for the identification, measurement, management and monitoring of funding positions. Those methodologies must include the current and projected material cash-flows in and arising from assets, liabilities, off-balance-sheet items, including contingent liabilities and the possible impact of reputational risk.22[Note: article 86(4) of the CRD]4
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(1) ensure a high level of diligence in the selection and ongoing monitoring of scheme property, in the best interests of the scheme and the integrity of the market;(2) ensure it has adequate knowledge and understanding of the assets in which any scheme it manages is invested;(3) establish written policies and procedures on due diligence and implement effective arrangements
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
(1) Issuers which are subject to an obligation to publish a prospectus under the Prospectus Directive are required by Article 3 of the PD Regulation to disclose risk factors. These requirements are set out in PR 2.3.1 EU and PR App 3.1.1 EU.(2) In complying with these obligations, issuers should consider disclosing the risk that actions by a regulatory authority in relation to the issuer may adversely affect the ability of the issuer to meet its obligations to investors or the
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure dependent on the seriousness of the market abuse and whether or not it was referable to the individual’s employment. This reflects the FCA's3 view that where an individual has been put into a position where he can commit market abuse because of his employment the fine imposed should reflect this by reference to the gross amount of all benefits derived from that employment.33(2) In cases where the market abuse was referable to the individual’s
A firm must be able to satisfy the appropriate regulator that it has adequate risk management processes to control the 1risks to which the firm may be exposed as a result of carrying out credit risk mitigation. Those processes must include appropriate stress tests and scenario analyses relating to those risks, including residual risk and the risks relating to the intrinsic value of the credit risk mitigation1.[Note: BCD Annex VIII Part 2 point 1]1
Subject to BIPRU 9.9.5 R,(1) where a firm calculates risk weighted exposure amounts under the standardised approach to securitisations outlined in BIPRU 9.11, the exposure value of an on-balance sheet securitisation position must be its balance sheet value;(2) where a firm calculates risk weighted exposure amounts under the IRB approach to securitisations outlined in BIPRU 9.12, the exposure value of an on-balance sheet securitisation position must be measured gross of value adjustments;(3)
4Without prejudice to SYSC 4.3A.1R, a common platform firm must ensure that the management body defines, approves and oversees:(1) the organisation of the firm for the provision of investment services and/or activities and ancillary services, including the skills, knowledge and expertise required by personnel, the resources, the procedures and the arrangements for the provision of services and activities, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of its business and
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
1Examples of circumstances in which the FCA will consider varying a firm'sPart 4A permission because it has serious concerns about a firm, or about the way its business is being or has been conducted include where: (1) in relation to the grounds for exercising the power under section 55J(1)(a) or section 55L(2)(a) of the Act, the firm appears to be failing, or appears likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions relating to one or more, or all, of its regulated activities,
(1) The purposes of this section are to:(a) provide UK recognised bodies with guidance regarding the provisions of PIDA; and(b) Encourage UK recognised bodies to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this section "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
This section also sets out requirements for the separation of different types of insurance activity. However, in most circumstances the combination of different types of insurance activity within the same firm is a source of strength. Adequate pooling and diversification of insurance risk is fundamental to sound business practice. The requirements, therefore, only apply in two specific cases where without adequate protection the combination might operate to the detriment of policyholders.
1A risks and features statement need not be personalised to the customer's circumstances but must:(1) include the Key facts logo in a prominent position at the top of the statement;(2) state that the FCA requires a firm to provide the statement;(3) state that mortgages are available and that the customer should think carefully about the product appropriate to his needs;(4) describe the significant features of the plan, including:(a) how the home purchase plan works;(b) the nature
The Society must establish and maintain effective arrangements to monitor and manage risk arising from:(1) conflicts of interest (including in relation to (2) to (4));(2) inter-syndicate transactions, including reinsurance to close and approved reinsurance to close;(3) related party transactions; and(4) transactions between members and itself.
In complying with SYSC 4.3.1 R (Responsibility of senior personnel), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that its senior personnel:(1) are responsible for the implementation of the general investment policy for each scheme it manages, as defined, where relevant, in the prospectus or the instrument constituting the fund;22(2) oversee the approval of investment strategies for each scheme it manages;(3)
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FCA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FCA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
When a collective portfolio management investment firm calculates the total risk exposure amount in article 92(3) of the EUCRR, the own funds requirements referred to in article 92(3)(a) (Risk-weighted1 exposure amount for credit risk and dilution risk) and article 92(3)(b) (Risk-weighted1 exposure amount for position risk) should include only those arising from its designated investment business. For this purpose, managing an AIF or managing a UCITS is excluded from designated